ATI RN
Pediatric Neurology Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Data support the use of intravenous dexamethasone, 0.15 mg/kg/dose given every 6 hr for 2 days, in the treatment of children older than 6 wk with acute bacterial meningitis caused by H. influenza type b. for the following reasons EXCEPT
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Dexamethasone in H. flu meningitis reducfever , CSF protein , lactate , and hearing loss , per trials (e.g., Cochrane). Mortality is not significantly lowered; benefits focus on morbidity. This outcome gap makes C the exception and correct answer.
Question 2 of 5
The MOST common presenting complaint of intramedullary spinal cord tumors is
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Back pain is the most common presenting symptom of intramedullary spinal cord tumors (~70%), per studies, from local mass effect. Gait , sensory , scoliosis , and urinary issufollow. Pains prominence makes D the correct answer.
Question 3 of 5
Prevented by folic acid
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Spina bifida is a neural tube defect (NTD) preventable by periconceptional folic acid, reducing incidence by 50-70%, per CDC evidence. It arisfrom failure of neural tube closure, directly linked to folate deficiency. Hydrocephalus results from CSF flow obstruction, not NTDs, and lacks evidence for folate prevention. Both A and B overstathydrocephaluss link, while Neither ignorspina bifidas established prevention. Folatrole in neurulation targets spina bifida specifically, making B the correct answer, reflecting its unique embryologic and epidemiologic profile.
Question 4 of 5
A 12-year-old female experiencacute monocular blindness of 2 days duration. Past history includuncharacterized headachfor 3 years, one episode of diplopia, and one of paresthesias of the feet, unrelated in time. Physical exam is unremarkable except reduced visual acuity. The most important diagnostic step is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: MRI is the most important step for acute monocular blindness lasting 2 days, with prior headaches, diplopia, and paresthesias. This suggests a neurologic etiology like migraine with prolonged aura, demyelination (e.g., MS), or stroke. MRIs superior soft-tissue resolution detects white matter lesions, infarcts, or inflammation, critical for differential diagnosis. CT identifihemorrhage but misssubtle pathology. EEG assessseizures, irrelevant here without convulsion. Nerve conduction and biopsy target peripheral nerves, not central vision loss. MRIs diagnostic yield, per AAN guidelines, make B the correct answer, addressing the broad symptom spectrum.
Question 5 of 5
The average time of closure of the posterior fontanel is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The posterior fontanel closat 2 months on average, per pediatric standards. Smaller than the anterior, it fusby 1-3 months postnatally as occipital suturmature. Two weeks is too early, while 12-20 months (C-E) apply to the anterior fontanel or anomalies. Early closure reflects rapid posterior skull growth cessation. Clinical observations (e.g., AAP) establish 2 months as the norm, making B the correct answer, distinct from longer anterior timelines.