Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. The cytoplasmic membrane of prokaryotes consists of phospholipids which form a lipid bilayer, providing structure and selective permeability. Proteins are embedded in this membrane, serving various functions like transport and signaling. Carbohydrates may also be present on the surface for cell recognition. Therefore, all three components (phospholipids, proteins, and carbohydrates) are essential parts of the prokaryotic cytoplasmic membrane. Option A, B, and C individually do not fully encapsulate the complexity and composition of the prokaryotic cytoplasmic membrane.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Metronidazole. Metronidazole is the drug of choice for amebic dysentery as it effectively targets the protozoa causing the infection. It has good tissue penetration and high efficacy against Entamoeba histolytica. Pyrantel (B) is used for nematode infections, not amebiasis. Levamisole (C) is an anthelmintic for roundworms and not effective against amoebas. Bicillin-5 (D) is a penicillin antibiotic, which is not indicated for treating amebic dysentery.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tuberculin. The Mantoux test involves injecting tuberculin, a protein derivative of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, under the skin to check for a delayed hypersensitivity reaction in individuals exposed to TB. B: BCG vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine used for TB prevention, not for diagnostic testing. C: DTP vaccine is for diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis, not TB. D: Tularinum is not a standard immunobiological preparation used for TB testing. Therefore, A is the correct choice for the Mantoux test.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reverse transcriptase and protease. Reverse transcriptase converts viral RNA into DNA, a crucial step in viral replication. Protease is responsible for cleaving viral polyproteins into functional proteins. Targeting both enzymes disrupts viral replication. Choice A is incorrect as integrase is not a main target in current therapy. Choice C is incorrect because protease is targeted along with reverse transcriptase, not integrase. Choice D is incorrect as targeting viral glycoproteins is not a main strategy in anti-HIV therapy.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Absence of hemagglutination. In the reaction inhibition of hemagglutination, specific antibodies bind to antigens on red blood cells, preventing their agglutination. This results in the absence of visible clumping of red blood cells, which is known as hemagglutination. Therefore, the presence of specific antibodies is visualized by the absence of hemagglutination. Incorrect Choices: A: Absence of hemolysis - Hemolysis refers to the rupture of red blood cells, which is not relevant in the context of hemagglutination. C: Presence of hemagglutination - This is the opposite of what is expected when specific antibodies are present and inhibiting hemagglutination. D: Presence of hemolysis - Again, hemolysis is not directly related to the inhibition of hemagglutination by specific antibodies.