ATI RN
ATI RN Pharmacology Online Practice 2019 A Questions
Question 1 of 9
Currently, there is no way to prevent myelosuppression. However, there are medications available to elicit a more rapid bone marrow recovery. An example is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Epoetin alfa (Epogen, Procrit) is an example of a medication used to elicit a more rapid bone marrow recovery. It is a form of erythropoietin, which stimulates the production of red blood cells in the bone marrow. By stimulating red blood cell production, epoetin alfa can help in faster recovery from myelosuppression, a condition characterized by low blood cell counts. This medication is commonly used in patients undergoing chemotherapy or those with chronic kidney disease to manage anemia and improve overall quality of life. Therefore, epoetin alfa is the correct answer in this scenario as it specifically addresses the issue of bone marrow recovery.
Question 2 of 9
The following are commonly associated with phlebitis when given via the intravenous route:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Potassium chloride is highly irritant to veins and often leads to inflammation (phlebitis) when administered intravenously.
Question 3 of 9
The data shown in the table below concern the effects of drugs on transmitter function in the CNS. Which one of the drugs is most likely to alleviate extrapyramidal dysfunction caused by typical antipsychotics?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Typical antipsychotics block dopamine D2 receptors, causing extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) like parkinsonism due to dopamine-acetylcholine imbalance in the basal ganglia. Drugs alleviating EPS often restore this balance. Drug A strongly activates dopamine receptors, mimicking dopamine and potentially countering the blockade, but excessive activation risks psychosis. Drug B moderately boosts dopamine and GABA, offering some benefit but less specificity. Drug C potently blocks muscarinic acetylcholine receptors, reducing cholinergic overactivity that emerges from dopamine depletion, a well-established approach (e.g., benztropine) for EPS relief without worsening psychosis. Drug D enhances GABA, unrelated to EPS mechanisms. Drug E mildly activates dopamine and GABA, insufficient for robust relief. Blocking muscarinic receptors directly addresses the cholinergic excess, making it the most effective and clinically validated strategy for EPS management.
Question 4 of 9
A 66-year-old man with a history of recurrent pulmonary infections and hypertension is managed with ethacrynic acid, which controls his hypertension well. He is often hospitalized and placed on gentamicin for his recurrent pulmonary infections. Which of the following adverse effects must the treating physician be keenly aware of?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Gentamicin, an aminoglycoside, risks ototoxicity-hearing loss , especially with repeated use. Ethacrynic acid, a loop diuretic, also has ototoxicity potential, compounding risk. Dizziness , nausea , vertigo , and vomiting (E) occur but are less specific. Monitoring hearing is critical in this scenario.
Question 5 of 9
A patient™s blood pressure elevates to 270/150 mm Hg, and a hypertensive emergency is obvious.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In a patient with a hypertensive emergency, rapid and effective blood pressure reduction is crucial to prevent organ damage. The recommendation for IV administration of antihypertensive medications in this scenario is to titrate the medication to achieve a safe reduction in blood pressure, generally targeting a decrease in mean arterial pressure by no more than 25% within the first hour. The specific medication and infusion rate are dependent on the patient's clinical status and individual factors. Therefore, the maximum dose and duration of infusion must be tailored to the patient's response, with close monitoring by healthcare providers. Hence, determining a fixed time for the maximum dose of the drug to be infused is not appropriate in this critical care scenario.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following drugs is most effective in converting a patient with atrial fibrillation into sinus rhythm?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Converting atrial fibrillation (AF) to sinus rhythm requires cardioversion or antiarrhythmics. Digoxin controls rate, not rhythm, ineffective for conversion. Atenolol, a beta-blocker, and diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker, manage rate, not rhythm restoration. Lidocaine treats ventricular arrhythmias. Amiodarone, a class III antiarrhythmic, prolongs repolarization, effectively converting AF to sinus rhythm, especially in acute settings, outperforming others. Its broad-spectrum action is key in AF management, balancing efficacy and safety.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following pharmacologic classifications does the drug propranolol fall under?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Propranolol belongs to the pharmacologic classification of Beta Blockers. Beta blockers work by blocking the action of adrenaline and other stress hormones, specifically by blocking beta receptors. Propranolol, in particular, is a non-selective beta blocker that is commonly used to treat conditions such as hypertension, angina, and arrhythmias. It is also used off-label for anxiety and migraine prevention.
Question 8 of 9
A client with anxiety is prescribed buspirone (Buspar). Which statement by the client indicates effective teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Buspirone, an anxiolytic, requires 2-4 weeks for effect and is dosed thrice daily , showing understanding. Immediate relief is false'it's not a benzo. Alcohol worsens anxiety. It's non-sedating . Thrice-daily dosing aligns with buspirone's steady-state need, key in anxiety where consistency matters, making B the correct statement.
Question 9 of 9
A 52-year-old overweight man steamroller operator comes to you complaining of itchy, watery eyes and runny nose in the springtime. He says that he has had this problem for as long as he can remember but does not like going to doctors. His wife finally convinced him to come today see what you might be able to do for him. You prescribe cetirizine. Which of the following describes cetirizine's mechanism of action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cetirizine treats seasonal allergies (itchy eyes, runny nose) by inhibiting H1 receptors . This blocks histamine, relieving symptoms without sedation, ideal for his job. β2 inhibition or stimulation affects airways. α1 stimulation vasoconstricts. H1 inhibition (E) isn't stimulatory. Cetirizine's action ensures efficacy and safety.