ATI RN
Microbiology An Introduction Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Crude herbal drugs must be examined for yeast-like fungi. What agar can ensure development of these microorganisms so that associating microflora will grow very slowly or won't grow at all?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sabouraud's peptone agar. This agar is specifically designed for the isolation of yeast and molds due to its low pH and high sugar content, creating an environment conducive for their growth. Yeast-like fungi thrive in this selective medium, while inhibiting the growth of bacteria and other contaminants. Summary: - Sabouraud's peptone agar is ideal for cultivating yeast-like fungi. - Endo agar is used for isolation of gram-negative bacteria, not fungi. - Milk-salt agar is used for lactobacilli and streptococci, not fungi. - Meat infusion agar is a general-purpose medium for cultivation of a wide range of microorganisms, not specifically for yeast-like fungi.
Question 2 of 9
A wound swab from a patient with severe tissue infection revealed Gram-positive rods in chains producing gas. The bacteria were spore-forming. What is the causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridium perfringens. This bacterium is a Gram-positive rod that forms chains and produces gas due to its ability to ferment carbohydrates. It is also spore-forming, which helps it survive harsh conditions. Clostridium perfringens is commonly associated with severe tissue infections and gas gangrene. Choice B: Bacillus anthracis is also a spore-forming Gram-positive rod but is not typically associated with gas production or severe tissue infections. Choice C: Clostridium tetani is a spore-forming bacterium that causes tetanus, not severe tissue infections with gas production. Choice D: Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a Gram-negative bacterium and does not fit the description provided in the question.
Question 3 of 9
The patient has developed pain in the axillary area, rise of temperature developed 10 hours ago. On examination: shaky gait is marked, the tongue is coated by white coating. The pulse is frequent. The painful lymphatic nodules are determined in the axillary area. The skin is erythematous and glistering over the lymphatic nodules. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The most probable diagnosis is D: Tularemia. Tularemia is a bacterial infection caused by Francisella tularensis. The symptoms described align with tularemia, such as pain in axillary area, fever, shaky gait, coated tongue, frequent pulse, painful lymphatic nodules, and erythematous skin over nodules. The key features pointing towards tularemia are the presence of lymphadenitis in the axillary area and the erythematous, glistering skin over the nodules, which are characteristic of ulceroglandular tularemia. Bubonic plague (A) presents with painful, swollen lymph nodes called buboes but typically lacks the erythematous skin findings. Acute purulent lymphadenitis (B) usually presents with pus-filled lymph nodes but does not typically cause shaky gait or coated tongue. Lymphogranulomatosis (C) is a term for Hodgkin's lymphoma, which does not
Question 4 of 9
A patient presented with a painful, swollen lymph node, and bacteremia. A Gram-negative rod with a characteristic safety pin appearance was observed. What is the causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Gram-negative rod with safety pin appearance indicates bipolar staining. Step 2: Yersinia pestis is a Gram-negative rod causing bubonic plague. Step 3: Y. pestis has bipolar staining due to its unique F1 capsule. Step 4: The swollen lymph node and bacteremia are consistent with bubonic plague. Step 5: Therefore, the correct answer is A: Yersinia pestis. Summary: - B: Clostridium tetani causes tetanus, not characterized by a safety pin appearance. - C: Brucella melitensis causes brucellosis, not characterized by a safety pin appearance. - D: Pasteurella multocida causes animal bites infections, not characterized by a safety pin appearance.
Question 5 of 9
Compared to primary immune response the secondary immune response
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the secondary immune response is quicker due to memory B and T cells being already present from the primary response. These memory cells can quickly recognize and respond to the antigen upon re-exposure, leading to a faster and more efficient immune response. Choices B and C are incorrect as the secondary response produces more antibodies and requires fewer antigen stimulations. Choice D is also incorrect as the secondary response is faster than the primary response.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following is a phase I reaction in biotransformation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oxidation. Phase I reactions in biotransformation involve introducing or unmasking functional groups through oxidation, reduction, or hydrolysis. Oxidation reactions typically involve the addition of an oxygen atom or removal of hydrogen atoms, making them common phase I reactions. In this process, enzymes like cytochrome P450 play a crucial role in catalyzing the oxidation reactions. Conjugation (B), acetylation (C), and glucuronidation (D) are all examples of phase II reactions, which involve the conjugation of the drug or metabolite with endogenous compounds to increase water solubility for excretion. These reactions typically follow phase I reactions and are not classified as phase I reactions in biotransformation.
Question 7 of 9
Microscopic examination of pus sample taken from mandibular fistula canal and stained by Gram's method has revealed druses with gram-positive coloring in the center and cone-shaped structures with gram-negative coloring. Such morphology is characteristic of the agent of:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Actinomycosis. Actinomyces is a gram-positive bacterium that forms sulfur granules (druses) with gram-positive coloring in the center and filamentous structures resembling cones with gram-negative coloring. This morphology is characteristic of Actinomyces species. Fusobacteriosis (choice A) typically presents with gram-negative rods. Staphylococcal osteomyelitis (choice C) is caused by gram-positive staphylococci, not Actinomyces. Anaerobic infections (choice D) can be caused by various bacteria, but the specific morphology described in the question matches Actinomyces, making choice B the correct answer.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following bacteria is responsible for causing the disease diphtheria?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Corynebacterium diphtheriae. This bacterium produces a toxin that causes diphtheria. It forms a grayish membrane in the throat, leading to difficulty breathing. Bacillus anthracis (Choice A) causes anthrax, Streptococcus pneumoniae (Choice C) causes pneumonia, and Escherichia coli (Choice D) causes various infections but not diphtheria.
Question 9 of 9
Toxoplasma gondii belongs to which group of eukaryotic organisms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Toxoplasma gondii is a protozoan parasite known to cause toxoplasmosis. It belongs to the group of eukaryotic organisms called protozoans because it is a single-celled organism with complex cellular structures. Protozoans are characterized by their ability to move and perform essential functions independently. Algae (choice A) are photosynthetic eukaryotic organisms, fungi (choice B) are non-photosynthetic eukaryotes that include molds and yeasts, and helminths (choice D) are multicellular parasitic worms. Therefore, the correct answer is C because Toxoplasma gondii is a protozoan parasite.