Critique the following statement made by the nurse: "I know it may be hard, but you should do what the doctor ordered because he/she is the expert in this field.'

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Question 1 of 9

Critique the following statement made by the nurse: "I know it may be hard, but you should do what the doctor ordered because he/she is the expert in this field.'

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the statement made by the nurse implies a power dynamic that can create dependency and inferiority in the patient, which is not conducive to a patient-centered approach. In a healthcare setting, it is important to empower patients to be active participants in their care decisions rather than being passive recipients. Encouraging patients to blindly follow orders without understanding or questioning can lead to poor outcomes and lack of patient engagement. Therefore, it is best to avoid making statements that reinforce hierarchical relationships and instead foster open communication and shared decision-making. The other choices are incorrect because: A: This choice focuses on bias, which is not the main issue at hand in this scenario. B: While healthcare team members are experts in their respective fields, the emphasis should be on collaborative decision-making rather than blind obedience. D: Using authority statements may be necessary in certain situations, but it does not address the potential harm of creating dependency and inferiority in the patient.

Question 2 of 9

A nurse is caring for a patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The nurse should prioritize which of the following interventions?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administering bronchodilators as prescribed. Rationale: 1. Bronchodilators help dilate the airways, improving airflow in COPD patients. 2. Priority is to address the underlying respiratory issue. 3. Bronchodilators are a standard treatment for managing COPD symptoms. 4. Improving airway patency is crucial in COPD exacerbations. Summary: - B: Encouraging avoidance of physical activity is incorrect as it can lead to deconditioning. - C: Providing supplemental oxygen is important but not the priority in this case. - D: Monitoring for acute kidney injury is unrelated to COPD management.

Question 3 of 9

Which medication should be administered first for a client with acute asthma exacerbation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choosing Albuterol as the correct answer: 1. Albuterol is a rapid-acting bronchodilator that provides immediate relief by relaxing the airway muscles during asthma exacerbation. 2. It is the first-line medication recommended by guidelines for acute asthma attacks due to its quick onset of action. 3. Albuterol helps in opening the airways, improving airflow, and relieving symptoms like shortness of breath and wheezing. 4. Epinephrine is not the first choice for asthma exacerbation as it can have more systemic side effects. 5. Levalbuterol is a similar medication to Albuterol but may not be as widely available or cost-effective. 6. IV corticosteroids are important for long-term control but take longer to show effects, making them less suitable as the initial treatment for acute exacerbation.

Question 4 of 9

What is the most effective action for a client with suspected sepsis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer antibiotics. Antibiotics are crucial in treating sepsis as they help to fight the underlying infection causing the condition. Administering antibiotics promptly can prevent the infection from spreading and worsening. Fluids (choices B and C) are important for treating sepsis to maintain blood pressure and support organ function, but antibiotics are the primary intervention to target the infection. Administering oxygen (choice D) may be necessary to support respiratory function in septic patients, but it is not the most effective action to address the underlying infection.

Question 5 of 9

A 59-year-old patient tells the nurse that he is in the clinic to "check up on his ulcerative colitis." He has been having "black stools" in the last 24 hours. How would the nurse document his reason for seeking care?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because it accurately reflects the patient's chief complaint of having black stools in the last 24 hours, which is a concerning symptom suggestive of gastrointestinal bleeding. This documentation is specific and focused on the reason for seeking care, prioritizing the urgent nature of the symptom. Choice A is incorrect because it does not mention the presenting symptom of black stools. Choice B is incorrect as it does not directly state the reason for seeking care. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on the patient's self-diagnosis of ulcerative colitis rather than the current concerning symptom of black stools.

Question 6 of 9

Which is included only in a comprehensive assessment?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Complete health history. In a comprehensive assessment, obtaining a complete health history is essential to gather information about the patient's past and present health conditions, including medical history, family history, social history, and current symptoms. This information helps the healthcare provider understand the patient's overall health status, identify risk factors, and develop an appropriate treatment plan. Assessing the circulatory system (A) and airway (B) are important components of a physical assessment, but they alone do not constitute a comprehensive assessment. Disability assessment (D) focuses on the functional limitations caused by a disability and is not always included in a comprehensive health assessment.

Question 7 of 9

Which condition is associated with inadequate intake of vitamin C?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Scurvy. Scurvy is caused by a deficiency in vitamin C, which is essential for collagen synthesis. Without enough vitamin C, collagen production is impaired, leading to symptoms like bleeding gums, fatigue, and joint pain. Incorrect Choices: A: Rickets is caused by a deficiency in vitamin D, not vitamin C. B: Marasmus is a severe form of malnutrition due to inadequate intake of calories and protein, not specifically vitamin C. C: Kwashiorkor is a form of severe acute malnutrition typically caused by inadequate protein intake, not vitamin C deficiency. In summary, the correct answer is D (Scurvy) because it directly relates to inadequate intake of vitamin C, while the other choices are associated with different nutrient deficiencies.

Question 8 of 9

Which quadrant of the abdomen is tender in suspected appendicitis?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct quadrant for tenderness in suspected appendicitis is the lower right quadrant (Choice C). This is because the appendix is located in the lower right abdomen. Appendicitis typically presents with pain starting around the navel and then localizing to the lower right quadrant. The other choices, upper right (Choice A), upper left (Choice B), and lower left (Choice D) are incorrect as they do not correspond to the typical location of the appendix. Upper right quadrant is where the liver and gallbladder are situated, upper left quadrant contains the stomach and spleen, and lower left quadrant has the colon and left ovary/testis.

Question 9 of 9

What is the most appropriate nursing action for a client with suspected peritonitis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer antibiotics. Peritonitis is an inflammation of the peritoneum often caused by infection. Administering antibiotics is crucial to combat the infection. It is important to treat the underlying cause first before focusing on symptom management. Administering analgesics (B) may provide temporary relief but won't address the infection. Applying an ice pack (C) is not appropriate for peritonitis as it won't treat the infection. Performing a laparotomy (D) is a surgical procedure that may be necessary in severe cases but is not the initial nursing action.

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