ATI RN
health assessment test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Critique the following statement made by the nurse: "I know it may be hard, but you should do what the doctor ordered because he/she is the expert in this field.'
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the statement made by the nurse implies a power dynamic that can create dependency and inferiority in the patient, which is not conducive to a patient-centered approach. In a healthcare setting, it is important to empower patients to be active participants in their care decisions rather than being passive recipients. Encouraging patients to blindly follow orders without understanding or questioning can lead to poor outcomes and lack of patient engagement. Therefore, it is best to avoid making statements that reinforce hierarchical relationships and instead foster open communication and shared decision-making. The other choices are incorrect because: A: This choice focuses on bias, which is not the main issue at hand in this scenario. B: While healthcare team members are experts in their respective fields, the emphasis should be on collaborative decision-making rather than blind obedience. D: Using authority statements may be necessary in certain situations, but it does not address the potential harm of creating dependency and inferiority in the patient.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient who is post-operative following an abdominal surgery. The nurse should prioritize which of the following interventions?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Encouraging early ambulation to prevent deep vein thrombosis. Early ambulation helps prevent blood clot formation in the legs, reducing the risk of deep vein thrombosis post-surgery. It also promotes circulation and aids in preventing complications like pneumonia. Administering pain medication (B) is important, but preventing complications should take priority. Providing wound care (C) is essential but not the top priority. Encouraging a high-protein diet (D) is beneficial for healing, but immediate post-operative mobility is crucial for preventing complications.
Question 3 of 9
Which condition places a client at risk for elevated ammonia levels?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Lupus. Lupus can affect the kidneys, leading to renal impairment. Renal impairment can decrease the body's ability to excrete ammonia, resulting in elevated levels. Renal failure (choice A) can also lead to elevated ammonia levels, but lupus specifically contributes to renal issues. Cirrhosis (choice B) primarily affects the liver, not kidneys. Psoriasis (choice C) is a skin condition and does not directly impact ammonia levels.
Question 4 of 9
What is the most appropriate action when a parent crosses their arms and legs during an interview?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because crossing arms and legs can indicate defensiveness or discomfort, which may suggest the parent is uneasy discussing their son's treatment. This nonverbal cue could signal a need for empathy and sensitivity in communication. Choice A is incorrect as it overlooks the significance of body language. Choice B assumes comfort without considering the context. Choice C assumes tiredness without considering other possibilities. Understanding body language cues can help in building rapport and addressing concerns effectively.
Question 5 of 9
Which food helps lower cholesterol?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Lower cholesterol. Foods that help lower cholesterol typically include sources of soluble fiber, plant sterols, and healthy fats like omega-3 fatty acids. These components can lower LDL (bad) cholesterol levels and reduce the risk of heart disease. Fiber-rich foods (choice A) are beneficial for lowering cholesterol due to their ability to bind to cholesterol and remove it from the body. Reduce diabetic ketoacidosis (choice B) is unrelated to lowering cholesterol and is a serious complication of diabetes. Reduce the need for folate (choice D) is not directly related to cholesterol levels. Thus, the correct choice is C as it directly addresses the question about lowering cholesterol.
Question 6 of 9
Which fetal heart monitor pattern can indicate cord compression?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: variable decelerations. Variable decelerations are abrupt decreases in fetal heart rate that vary in depth, duration, and timing, which can indicate cord compression. The variability in these decelerations suggests that the umbilical cord is being compressed intermittently. Early decelerations (B) are usually caused by head compression during contractions and mirror the contractions, not indicating cord compression. Bradycardia (C) is a slow heart rate, which can be caused by various factors but is not specific to cord compression. Tachycardia (D) is a fast heart rate, which can also be caused by various factors but is not typically associated with cord compression.
Question 7 of 9
A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is being assessed. The nurse would expect to find which of the following symptoms?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Edema and proteinuria. In CKD, the kidneys are unable to filter waste products effectively, leading to fluid retention (edema) and protein leaking into the urine (proteinuria). Edema occurs due to fluid buildup from decreased kidney function. Proteinuria is a result of damaged glomeruli in the kidneys, allowing proteins to leak into the urine. Weight loss and polyphagia (excessive hunger) are not typical symptoms of CKD. Hypertension and tachycardia can occur in CKD due to fluid overload and electrolyte imbalances. Hypothermia and bradycardia are not common symptoms of CKD and would be more indicative of other conditions.
Question 8 of 9
Which condition is associated with inadequate intake of vitamin C?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Scurvy. Scurvy is caused by a deficiency in vitamin C, which is essential for collagen synthesis. Without enough vitamin C, collagen production is impaired, leading to symptoms like bleeding gums, fatigue, and joint pain. Incorrect Choices: A: Rickets is caused by a deficiency in vitamin D, not vitamin C. B: Marasmus is a severe form of malnutrition due to inadequate intake of calories and protein, not specifically vitamin C. C: Kwashiorkor is a form of severe acute malnutrition typically caused by inadequate protein intake, not vitamin C deficiency. In summary, the correct answer is D (Scurvy) because it directly relates to inadequate intake of vitamin C, while the other choices are associated with different nutrient deficiencies.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which of the following lab results would the nurse expect to be elevated in this patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blood urea nitrogen (BUN). In CKD, the kidneys are unable to effectively filter waste products, leading to an increase in BUN levels. Elevated BUN indicates impaired kidney function. Calcium, potassium, and sodium levels may also be affected in CKD, but they are more likely to be imbalanced rather than consistently elevated. Calcium levels may be low due to impaired vitamin D activation, potassium levels may be high due to decreased excretion, and sodium levels can fluctuate based on fluid status. Therefore, while these lab values may be abnormal in CKD, BUN is the most consistently elevated marker of kidney dysfunction.