ATI RN
Pediatric Nursing Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Criteria of patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In pediatric nursing, understanding the criteria for patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) is crucial for early identification and appropriate management. The correct answer is A) Wide pulse pressure. In PDA, the ductus arteriosus fails to close after birth, leading to a connection between the aorta and pulmonary artery. This results in a left-to-right shunt, causing an increase in blood flow to the lungs and subsequently widening the pulse pressure. Option B) Pan-systolic murmur is typically associated with mitral regurgitation, not PDA. Option C) Right apical impulse is indicative of right ventricular hypertrophy, commonly seen in conditions like pulmonary hypertension, not specific to PDA. Option D) Normal pulmonary venous markings would not be expected in PDA as increased blood flow to the lungs would likely cause pulmonary congestion. In an educational context, it is important for nursing students to grasp the clinical manifestations and assessment findings specific to PDA to provide safe and effective care to pediatric patients. Recognizing the key criteria such as wide pulse pressure can prompt timely interventions and prevent complications associated with untreated PDA. This knowledge underscores the significance of thorough assessment skills and understanding cardiac anomalies in pediatric nursing practice.
Question 2 of 5
Iron chelating agents are used for treatment of:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Iron chelating agents are used for the treatment of chronic hemolytic anemia, which is characterized by the increased destruction of red blood cells leading to elevated levels of iron in the body. These agents help in removing the excess iron from the body, preventing iron overload which can lead to organ damage. Option A) Leukemia: Leukemia is a type of cancer affecting the blood and bone marrow. Iron chelating agents are not indicated for the treatment of leukemia as the primary treatment involves chemotherapy, radiation, and bone marrow transplantation. Option B) Lymphoma: Lymphoma is a cancer of the lymphatic system. Iron chelating agents are not used in the treatment of lymphoma as it is primarily managed with chemotherapy, radiation therapy, immunotherapy, or stem cell transplantation. Option C) Wilms tumor: Wilms tumor is a type of kidney cancer that primarily affects children. Iron chelating agents are not part of the standard treatment for Wilms tumor, which typically involves surgery, chemotherapy, and sometimes radiation therapy. Educationally, understanding the appropriate use of iron chelating agents in chronic hemolytic anemia is crucial for pediatric nurses. By knowing the indications for these agents, nurses can ensure proper administration, monitor for side effects, and educate patients and families on the importance of treatment compliance. This knowledge enhances the quality of care provided to pediatric patients with chronic hemolytic anemia.
Question 3 of 5
Which clinical sign is pathognomonic of rubella?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D) Post auricular lymphadenopathy. In rubella, also known as German measles, the presence of post auricular (behind the ear) lymphadenopathy is a pathognomonic sign. This means that this finding is characteristic and specific to rubella. Option A) Severe prodromal stage is not pathognomonic of rubella as many infectious diseases can present with a severe prodromal stage. Option B) Circumoral pallor is not a specific sign of rubella but can be seen in various conditions, including anemia or hypoxia. Option C) Maculopapular rash is a common manifestation of rubella but not pathognomonic as it can also be seen in other viral illnesses. In an educational context, understanding the specific clinical signs of different childhood illnesses is crucial for pediatric nurses to provide accurate and timely care. Recognizing pathognomonic signs like post auricular lymphadenopathy in rubella can aid in prompt diagnosis and appropriate management, ultimately improving patient outcomes.
Question 4 of 5
Acyclovir is indicated for treatment of:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Acyclovir is indicated for the treatment of Herpes simplex virus infections. This antiviral medication works specifically against herpes viruses by inhibiting viral DNA replication. Herpes simplex virus causes conditions like cold sores, genital herpes, and herpes encephalitis, for which acyclovir is an effective treatment. Option B) Enteroviruses: Acyclovir is not effective against enteroviruses as they belong to a different viral family and have a different mechanism of action. Option C) Mumps: Acyclovir is not indicated for the treatment of mumps, which is caused by the mumps virus, a paramyxovirus. Antivirals like acyclovir do not target paramyxoviruses. Option D) Measles: Acyclovir is not used to treat measles, which is caused by the measles virus (paramyxovirus). Antivirals like acyclovir do not have activity against paramyxoviruses. In a pediatric nursing context, understanding the appropriate use of medications like acyclovir is crucial for providing safe and effective care to pediatric patients. Knowing the indications for specific medications helps nurses make informed decisions, prevent medication errors, and improve patient outcomes. This question reinforces the importance of medication knowledge in pediatric nursing practice.
Question 5 of 5
Mid diastolic rumble murmur at the lower left sternal border may be heard in the following structural heart disease:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D) Large atrial septal defect (ASD). In pediatric nursing practice, a mid diastolic rumble murmur at the lower left sternal border is characteristic of an ASD. This murmur occurs due to increased flow across the tricuspid valve during diastole, resulting from the left-to-right shunt through the defect. The timing and location of the murmur align with the characteristics of an ASD. Option A, Large PDA, is incorrect because a PDA typically presents with a continuous murmur, not a mid diastolic rumble. Option B, Severe mitral incompetence, would present with a holosystolic murmur at the apex, not a mid diastolic murmur at the lower left sternal border. Option C, Aortic rheumatic carditis with mitral valvulitis, is unlikely to present with a mid diastolic rumble murmur at the lower left sternal border. Understanding the specific murmurs associated with different structural heart diseases is crucial in pediatric nursing practice. Differentiating between these murmurs helps in accurate diagnosis and appropriate management of pediatric patients with congenital heart defects. A thorough knowledge of pediatric cardiac assessments and auscultation skills is essential for pediatric nurses to provide quality care to this patient population.