ATI RN
Pediatric Nursing Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Criteria of patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the context of pediatric nursing, understanding the criteria of patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) is crucial for providing safe and effective care to pediatric patients. The correct answer is A) Wide pulse pressure. Wide pulse pressure is a key characteristic of PDA due to the continuous flow of blood from the aorta to the pulmonary artery, leading to increased pressure in the aorta during systole and decreased pressure during diastole. This results in a widened pulse pressure, which is a hallmark sign of PDA. Option B) Pan-systolic murmur is associated with conditions like mitral regurgitation or ventricular septal defect, not PDA. Option C) Right apical impulse is seen in conditions like right ventricular hypertrophy, not PDA. Option D) Normal pulmonary venous markings are not typically associated with PDA, as PDA can lead to increased pulmonary blood flow and prominent pulmonary vascular markings on imaging. Educationally, understanding the clinical manifestations and diagnostic criteria of PDA helps nurses in early identification, appropriate management, and collaboration with the healthcare team for optimal patient outcomes. By recognizing the signs and symptoms of PDA, nurses can advocate for timely interventions and support the well-being of pediatric patients with this congenital heart defect.
Question 2 of 5
Iron chelating agents are used for treatment of:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Iron chelating agents are used for the treatment of chronic hemolytic anemia because this condition is characterized by increased breakdown of red blood cells, leading to the release of excess iron into the bloodstream. Iron chelators bind to this excess iron and help remove it from the body, preventing iron overload and associated complications. Option A, leukemia, is incorrect because iron chelating agents are not typically used in the treatment of leukemia. Leukemia is a cancer of the blood and bone marrow, and its treatment involves chemotherapy, radiation therapy, and sometimes stem cell transplants. Option B, lymphoma, is also incorrect as iron chelators are not a standard part of lymphoma treatment. Lymphoma is a type of cancer that affects the lymphatic system, and treatment typically involves chemotherapy, immunotherapy, radiation therapy, or a combination of these. Option C, Wilms tumor, is incorrect because iron chelating agents are not indicated for the treatment of this specific type of kidney cancer that primarily affects children. Treatment for Wilms tumor usually involves surgery, chemotherapy, and sometimes radiation therapy. In an educational context, understanding the appropriate use of iron chelating agents in chronic hemolytic anemia is crucial for pediatric nurses caring for children with this condition. This knowledge helps nurses provide safe and effective care, monitor for potential side effects of iron chelators, and educate patients and families on the importance of treatment compliance.
Question 3 of 5
Which clinical sign is pathognomonic of rubella?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D) Post auricular lymphadenopathy. Rubella, also known as German measles, is characterized by the presence of post auricular lymphadenopathy, which refers to swollen lymph nodes located behind the ears. This clinical sign is pathognomonic, meaning it is highly characteristic and specific to rubella. Option A) Severe prodromal stage is not pathognomonic of rubella. While rubella does have a prodromal stage, the severity of this stage is not unique to rubella and can be seen in other conditions as well. Option B) Circumoral pallor is not specific to rubella. This finding refers to a paleness around the mouth and is not a key clinical sign of rubella. Option C) Maculopapular rash is a common manifestation of rubella but is not pathognomonic. This type of rash can be seen in various viral infections and is not unique to rubella. Educationally, understanding the key clinical signs and symptoms of pediatric diseases like rubella is crucial for nurses caring for pediatric patients. Recognizing pathognomonic signs can lead to early identification and appropriate management of the condition, ultimately improving patient outcomes. Nurses should be well-versed in differentiating between common and unique clinical manifestations to provide optimal care to their pediatric patients.
Question 4 of 5
Acyclovir is indicated for treatment of:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Acyclovir is indicated for the treatment of herpes simplex virus infections. This antiviral medication specifically targets and inhibits the replication of herpes simplex virus types 1 and 2. Herpes simplex virus infections commonly manifest as oral or genital lesions and acyclovir is effective in reducing the severity and duration of these symptoms. Option B) Enteroviruses: Acyclovir is not effective against enteroviruses as it specifically targets herpes simplex viruses. Enteroviruses can cause a variety of illnesses such as hand, foot, and mouth disease, meningitis, and myocarditis. Option C) Mumps: Acyclovir is not indicated for the treatment of mumps. Mumps is caused by a different virus and does not respond to acyclovir treatment. Option D) Measles: Acyclovir is not used to treat measles. Measles is caused by a different virus and requires a different treatment approach. Understanding the indications for specific medications is crucial in pediatric nursing practice to ensure safe and effective patient care. Knowing the appropriate use of medications like acyclovir can help pediatric nurses provide optimal treatment for their young patients with herpes simplex virus infections.
Question 5 of 5
Mid diastolic rumble murmur at the lower left sternal border may be heard in the following structural heart disease:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D) Large atrial septal defect (ASD). A mid-diastolic rumble murmur at the lower left sternal border is characteristic of ASD. This murmur occurs due to increased flow across the tricuspid valve during diastole, leading to turbulence. Option A) Large PDA usually presents with a continuous murmur, not a mid-diastolic rumble. Option B) Severe mitral incompetence typically causes a holosystolic murmur, not a mid-diastolic rumble. Option C) Aortic rheumatic carditis with mitral valvulitis would manifest with different murmurs associated with valvular dysfunction, not a mid-diastolic rumble. Educationally, it is crucial for pediatric nurses to understand the specific characteristics of murmurs associated with different structural heart diseases to accurately assess and diagnose pediatric patients. Recognizing the unique features of each murmur can guide appropriate interventions and referrals for further evaluation and treatment.