Correct statements concerning cocaine include all of the following EXCEPT:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because cocaine actually causes myocardial stimulation and vasoconstriction, not depression and vasodilatation. Cocaine is a local anesthetic and vasoconstrictor, commonly used in nose and throat procedures (Choice A). Its abuse potential limits its medical use (Choice B). Cocaine causes sympathetically mediated effects such as tachycardia and vasoconstriction (Choice D). Therefore, the incorrect statement is C because cocaine does not cause myocardial depression and peripheral vasodilatation.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Nondepolarizing blockers compete with depolarizing agents at the neuromuscular junction, reducing their effects. 2. Aminoglycosides can potentiate neuromuscular blockade. 3. Antiarrhythmic drugs can enhance neuromuscular blockade. 4. Local anesthetics can increase neuromuscular blockade. 5. Therefore, only nondepolarizing blockers do not increase the effects of depolarizing agents.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dobutamine. In cardiogenic shock, dobutamine is preferred due to its positive inotropic effects, which increase contractility and cardiac output. Epinephrine (A) has potent vasoconstrictive effects that may worsen coronary perfusion. Isoproterenol (C) can lead to tachycardia and worsen myocardial oxygen demand. Methoxamine (D) is a vasoconstrictor and may further decrease cardiac output in cardiogenic shock. In summary, dobutamine is preferred for cardiogenic shock due to its positive inotropic effects without significant vasoconstriction or tachycardia.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because pindolol and oxprenolol are both partial agonists at beta-adrenergic receptors. This means they have intrinsic sympathomimetic activity. This property sets them apart from other beta blockers that do not have partial agonist activity. A: They are nonselective beta antagonists - True, they block both beta-1 and beta-2 receptors. C: They are less likely to cause bradycardia and abnormalities in plasma lipids - True, due to their partial agonist activity. D: They are effective in hypertension and angina - True, they are used for these conditions.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Thiopental. Thiopental is used intravenously as anesthesia due to its rapid onset and short duration of action, making it suitable for induction of anesthesia. Phenobarbital, Flurazepam, and Zolpidem are not typically used for anesthesia due to slower onset, longer duration, and different mechanisms of action. Thiopental's pharmacokinetic profile and effectiveness in inducing anesthesia make it the most appropriate choice among the options provided.