ATI RN
Anatomy of Hematologic System Questions
Question 1 of 5
Cooley's anemia is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Cooley's anemia is another term for thalassemia major, a genetic disorder affecting hemoglobin production. Step 2: Thalassemia major results in severe anemia due to the body's inability to produce enough functional hemoglobin. Step 3: Sickle cell anemia (Choice A) is a different genetic disorder characterized by abnormal hemoglobin shape. Step 4: High ESR (Choice C) is a non-specific marker of inflammation, not specific to Cooley's anemia. Step 5: Aplastic anemia (Choice D) is a condition where the bone marrow does not produce enough blood cells, not specific to Cooley's anemia.
Question 2 of 5
Half life of plat. Is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (3-4 days) because the half-life of platinum is known to be around 3-4 days based on scientific research and studies. This means that within this time frame, half of the amount of platinum will decay or disintegrate. The other choices (A, C, D) are incorrect because they do not align with the established half-life value of platinum. Option A (1-2 days), C (5-6 days), and D (7-8 days) do not fall within the typical range of platinum's half-life duration as determined by scientific data and experimentation. Therefore, option B is the most accurate and scientifically supported choice for the half-life of platinum.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a patient who has a diagnosis of acute leukemia. What assessment most directly addresses the most common cause of death among patients with leukemia?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitoring for infection. In patients with acute leukemia, the most common cause of death is infection due to the suppression of the immune system by the disease and its treatment. By closely monitoring for signs of infection such as fever, chills, increased heart rate, and low white blood cell count, the nurse can promptly intervene and provide appropriate treatment to prevent complications and improve patient outcomes. The other choices are incorrect because while they are important aspects of care for patients with leukemia, monitoring for infection directly addresses the most critical risk factor leading to mortality in this patient population.
Question 4 of 5
A 35-year-old male is admitted to the hospital complaining of severe headaches, vomiting, and testicular pain. His blood work shows reduced numbers of platelets, leukocytes, and erythrocytes, with a high proportion of immature cells. The nurse caring for this patient suspects a diagnosis of what?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: ALL (Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia). In this case, the patient's symptoms of severe headaches, vomiting, testicular pain, reduced blood cell counts, and high proportion of immature cells indicate a rapidly progressing hematologic malignancy affecting lymphoid cells. AML (Choice A) primarily affects myeloid cells, not lymphoid cells. CML (Choice B) is a chronic myeloid disorder and presents differently with elevated leukocyte count and mature cells. MDS (Choice C) is a group of disorders characterized by abnormal blood cell production, but the presentation in this patient is more indicative of an acute leukemia.
Question 5 of 5
A patient with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma is receiving information from the oncology nurse. The patient asks the nurse why she should stop drinking and smoking and stay out of the sun. What would be the nurse's best response?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because reducing factors that increase the risk of second cancers is crucial for a patient with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. Alcohol, smoking, and sun exposure are known risk factors for developing secondary cancers. By avoiding these behaviors, the patient can lower the chances of developing another cancer. Choice A is incorrect as it does not specifically address the patient's situation. Choice B uses fear tactics and may not be the most effective way to educate the patient. Choice C is vague and does not provide a clear rationale. Overall, choice D is the best response as it directly addresses the patient's concern and provides a logical explanation for the importance of changing these behaviors.