Convulsions in amniotic fluid embolism are confused for

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, postpartum eclampsia. In amniotic fluid embolism, convulsions are often mistaken for postpartum eclampsia due to similar symptoms such as seizures and altered mental status. Postpartum eclampsia occurs after delivery, usually within 48 hours, while antepartum eclampsia occurs before delivery. Presence of stroke and pre-existing epilepsy are not directly related to convulsions in amniotic fluid embolism. Thus, D is the correct choice as it closely resembles the presentation of convulsions in amniotic fluid embolism.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Respiratory distress syndrome. Surfactant is essential for reducing surface tension in the alveoli, preventing their collapse. Inadequate levels of surfactant in a neonate result in respiratory distress syndrome. Meconium aspiration syndrome (A) is due to inhalation of meconium by the neonate. Intranatal pneumonia (B) is an infection acquired during birth. Congenital pneumothorax (D) is the presence of air in the pleural space, not directly related to surfactant levels.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Placental bed. Malaria parasites hide in the placental bed during pregnancy to avoid detection by the immune system. This location provides a safe haven for the parasites to survive and replicate without being cleared by the mother's immune response. The placental bed offers a rich blood supply and a favorable environment for the parasites to thrive. Incorrect choices: A: Bone marrow - Malaria parasites do not typically hide in the bone marrow during pregnancy. C: Fetal circulation - Malaria parasites do not hide in the fetal circulation; they primarily reside in the placental bed. D: Uterine muscle - Malaria parasites do not hide in the uterine muscle; the placental bed is the main site of sequestration during pregnancy.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperbaric oxygen. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy involves breathing pure oxygen in a pressurized room, which can help reduce gas cysts in the gastrointestinal tract by increasing oxygen delivery to tissues. This promotes healing and reduces symptoms associated with pneumatosis. A: Several days of oxygen by face mask is not as effective as hyperbaric oxygen therapy in treating pneumatosis, as it does not provide the same level of pressurized oxygen delivery to tissues. C: Surgical resection may be considered in severe cases of pneumatosis where conservative treatments have failed, but it is not the first-line treatment option. D: Treatment of underlying disease is important in managing pneumatosis, but it may not directly address the gas cysts themselves. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy specifically targets the gas cysts to alleviate symptoms.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Place the client in knee-chest position. This helps relieve pressure on the cord and prevents further compression, ensuring adequate blood flow to the fetus. Pushing the cord back in (A) can worsen the situation. Covering the cord (B) does not address the urgent need to relieve pressure. Immediate vaginal delivery (D) may not be possible or safe at 32 weeks. Placing the client in the knee-chest position is the most immediate and effective action to manage cord prolapse.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because in Cushing's syndrome, there is excess cortisol production leading to hyperglycemia (high glucose) and hypokalemia (low potassium). The high white blood cell count is due to the immunosuppressive effects of cortisol. Option B is incorrect as polycythemia is not typically seen in Cushing's syndrome. Option C is incorrect as low sodium and low potassium are not common findings in Cushing's syndrome. Option D is incorrect as high sodium, high chloride, and high RBCs are not typical features of Cushing's syndrome.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Delay in second stage of labor. Forceps delivery is indicated when there is a delay in the second stage of labor to expedite delivery and prevent maternal and fetal complications. This could be due to factors such as maternal exhaustion, fetal distress, or ineffective pushing. Inadequate pelvis size (A) may necessitate a C-section, unsuccessful vacuum extraction (C) may require alternative interventions, and fetal distress in the first stage of labor (D) may not necessarily indicate the need for forceps delivery immediately.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In the management of hypothermia neonatorum, the gradual rewarming process is aimed at preventing shock. Rapid rewarming can lead to vasodilation, causing a sudden drop in blood pressure and potentially leading to shock. Gradual rewarming helps the body adjust slowly to prevent this. Providing energy (Choice A) is not the primary goal of rewarming in hypothermia. Providing comfort (Choice C) is important but not the main purpose of the rewarming process. Preventing burns (Choice D) is not directly related to the rewarming process but is important to ensure the safety of the neonate during the rewarming process.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale for correct answer (A): At 36 weeks, the baby has enough room to move, reducing risks of complications during external cephalic version. Earlier intervention also allows for possible repeat attempts if needed. This timing aligns with guidelines for optimal success rates. Summary of other choices: B: 38 weeks may be too late as the baby may have less space to turn. C: 42 weeks is post-term and poses risks for both the baby and the mother. D: 40 weeks is close to full term and may not allow for adequate time for successful version.