Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because continuous venovenous hemodiafiltration (CVVHDF) combines ultrafiltration, convection, and dialysis to maximize fluid and solute removal. Ultrafiltration removes plasma water, convection removes fluids and solutes, and dialysis facilitates solute removal through diffusion. Choice A is incorrect because convection alone does not remove solutes, but CVVHDF combines convection with other methods. Choice B is incorrect because CVVHDF is not specifically used for volume overload, although it does remove fluids. Choice C is incorrect because CVVHDF does not involve adding dialysate to remove solutes; instead, it relies on diffusion for solute removal. In summary, the correct answer D is the best choice as it encompasses all the components needed for comprehensive fluid and solute removal in CVVHDF.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: intrarenal. The presence of sediment, crystals, and bacteria in the urinalysis indicates an issue within the kidneys themselves. The flank pain suggests renal involvement. Prerenal would involve issues before the kidneys, such as inadequate blood flow. Postrenal would involve issues after the kidneys, such as urinary tract obstruction. Not renal related is incorrect as the symptoms and urinalysis findings clearly point to a renal issue.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the patient was recently discharged after a prolonged course of aminoglycoside therapy, which is a known risk factor for acute kidney injury due to its nephrotoxic effects. Choice A is incorrect because although aminoglycosides can cause kidney injury, the duration of therapy is shorter in this case. Choice B is incorrect because controlled hypertension is not a significant risk factor for acute kidney injury. Choice D is incorrect because fluid overload from heart failure may lead to other complications but is not directly associated with acute kidney injury.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Blood glucose: 524 mg/dL. The patient likely has diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) due to missed insulin doses, stress, and illness leading to high blood glucose levels. DKA is characterized by hyperglycemia, ketosis, and metabolic acidosis. A low blood glucose level (Choice A) is not consistent with DKA. HCO3- of 10 mEq/L (Choice C) indicates metabolic acidosis, but it's not specific to DKA. A PaCO2 of 37 mm Hg (Choice D) is within the normal range and not directly related to DKA.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: A patient with head trauma may develop diabetes insipidus due to damage to the hypothalamus or pituitary gland, leading to decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). This results in excessive urine output and thirst. Other options are incorrect because: B: Diabetic ketoacidosis is associated with high blood sugar and ketones, not increased urine output. C: Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome is characterized by extreme hyperglycemia, not increased urine output. D: Syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone results in decreased urine output due to excess ADH.