ATI RN
Adult Health Med Surg Nursing Test Banks Questions
Question 1 of 9
Considering the pain assessment scale (1, is the least pain and 5 is the most painful) Mrs. P described her pain in the scale of 5, you expect that the doctor will order which of the following pain medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When a patient describes their pain as a 5 on the pain assessment scale, it indicates severe pain and the need for a strong pain medication. Morphine Sulphate is a potent opioid analgesic that is commonly used to manage severe pain, such as in cases where the pain is rated as 5. Meperidine HCl (Demerol) is another opioid analgesic, but it is not as commonly used due to its side effect profile and potential for toxicity. Fentanyl (Duragesic) is also a potent opioid analgesic that can be used for severe pain, but morphine is often preferred in this situation. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is a milder pain reliever and is not typically sufficient for pain described at a level of 5 on the pain scale.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following signs is indicative of shock in a trauma patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rapid capillary refill is a sign indicative of shock in a trauma patient. Shock is a life-threatening condition where the body's organs and tissues do not receive adequate blood flow and oxygen, leading to cellular damage and eventual organ failure. In a trauma patient, rapid capillary refill suggests poor perfusion, which is a common feature of shock. The capillary refill time is an important clinical assessment that measures the time it takes for color to return to the nail bed after pressure is applied. In cases of shock, the refill time is faster than normal, indicating a systemic circulatory disturbance. Other signs of shock may include tachycardia (increased heart rate), hypotension (not hypertension), and hypothermia (not hyperthermia).
Question 3 of 9
A patient presents with watery diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and nausea after consuming contaminated water from a stream during a camping trip. Laboratory tests reveal oocysts in the stool sample. Which of the following parasites is most likely responsible for this infection?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Cryptosporidium parvum is a protozoan parasite that commonly causes waterborne illness characterized by watery diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and nausea. This parasite is often transmitted through contaminated water sources such as streams or lakes. Laboratory tests identifying oocysts in the stool sample are indicative of Cryptosporidium infection. Giardia lamblia can also cause similar symptoms, but the presence of oocysts points more towards Cryptosporidium in this case. Entamoeba histolytica causes amoebic dysentery with bloody diarrhea and is usually associated with fecal-oral transmission through contaminated food or water. Cyclospora cayetanensis typically causes prolonged watery diarrhea and is associated with the ingestion of contaminated food or water.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse conducts a regular audit of the medical records the PRIMARY purpose of conducting audit in a health facility is to _____.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The primary purpose of conducting an audit in a health facility is to ensure that standards are met. Audits are conducted to review and evaluate the documentation and practices within a healthcare facility to ensure compliance with established standards, protocols, procedures, and regulations. By conducting audits, the facility can identify any discrepancies, non-compliance with standards, or areas for improvement to maintain high-quality care and patient safety. This process helps in maintaining a high standard of care, reducing errors, promoting quality improvement initiatives, and ensuring the overall efficiency and effectiveness of healthcare services provided in the facility.
Question 5 of 9
Demography is concerned with the study of population. Which of the following are included in demographic profile?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The demographic profile of a population encompasses various aspects, including size, distribution, composition, and change over time.
Question 6 of 9
A patient presents with recurrent episodes of sudden, severe vertigo lasting hours, accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and nystagmus. Vestibular function tests demonstrate unilateral weakness. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient's presentation of recurrent episodes of sudden, severe vertigo lasting hours, along with nausea, vomiting, nystagmus, and unilateral weakness on vestibular function tests, is most consistent with vestibular neuritis. Vestibular neuritis is an inflammatory disorder of the vestibular nerve, typically viral in origin, leading to acute onset of vertigo. Patients often experience severe vertigo, imbalance, nausea, and vomiting, along with characteristic nystagmus. Unilateral weakness on vestibular function testing supports the diagnosis of vestibular neuritis, as it indicates dysfunction of one vestibular organ. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) typically presents with brief episodes of vertigo triggered by changes in head position without associated unilateral vestibular weakness. Ménière's disease is characterized by recurrent episodes of vertigo associated with fluctuating hearing loss, tinnitus, and aural fullness, and
Question 7 of 9
A patient admitted to the ICU develops acute pancreatitis with severe abdominal pain and elevated pancreatic enzymes. What intervention should the healthcare team prioritize to manage the patient's pancreatitis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The priority intervention in managing acute pancreatitis is to administer intravenous fluids to maintain adequate hydration. Acute pancreatitis can lead to significant fluid loss and dehydration due to factors such as vomiting and third-spacing of fluids into the retroperitoneal space. Adequate hydration helps to optimize perfusion to the pancreas, prevent hypovolemic shock, and support overall organ function. This intervention also aids in flushing out inflammatory mediators and preventing complications such as acute kidney injury. Monitoring fluid status and adjusting the rate of intravenous fluid administration based on the patient's response is crucial in the management of acute pancreatitis. While other interventions such as imaging studies, nutritional support, and gastric acid suppression may be important in managing acute pancreatitis, ensuring adequate hydration is the most critical initial step.
Question 8 of 9
The immunity conferred by tetanus toxoid is best described as:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tetanus toxoid provides long-lasting active immunity. When a person is vaccinated with tetanus toxoid, their immune system is stimulated to produce antibodies against the tetanus toxin. These antibodies provide protection against tetanus infection by recognizing and neutralizing the toxin if the person is exposed to the bacteria that causes tetanus in the future. This active immune response can last for many years, providing ongoing protection against tetanus. However, booster doses are recommended every 10 years to maintain adequate levels of protection.
Question 9 of 9
Which assessment findings is INDICATIVE of the diagnosis of hypertension?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The assessment finding that is indicative of the diagnosis of hypertension is consistent evaluation of blood pressure. Hypertension is diagnosed based on repeated measurements of elevated blood pressure. Consistently high blood pressure readings, usually defined as systolic blood pressure consistently at or above 140 mmHg and diastolic blood pressure consistently at or above 90 mmHg, are a key factor in diagnosing hypertension. Family history of high blood pressure (Choice A), elevation of blood cholesterol level (Choice B), and a stressful work environment (Choice C) may be risk factors for hypertension but are not diagnostic criteria. In order to diagnose hypertension, healthcare providers rely on consistent measurement and evaluation of blood pressure over time.