ATI RN
Nursing Process Questions and Answers PDF Questions
Question 1 of 9
Considering Mr. Franco’s conditions, which of the following is most important to include in preparing Franco’s bedside equipment?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Mr. Franco's condition suggests he may need support and positioning. Step 2: Sandbags provide stability and trochanter rolls prevent hip rotation. Step 3: These help prevent pressure ulcers and maintain proper body alignment. Step 4: Hand bell and bed linen are not essential for Mr. Franco's immediate care. Step 5: Footboard and splint may not be relevant to his specific condition. Step 6: Suction machine and gloves are important but not as crucial as positioning aids for Mr. Franco. Summary: Choice C is correct as it directly addresses Mr. Franco's needs for support and positioning, while the other choices are less relevant or not as essential in this context.
Question 2 of 9
A 62-year old client diagnosed with pyelonephritis and possible septicemia has had five urinary tract infections over the past 2 years. She’s fatigued from lack of sleep; urinates frequently, even during the night, and has lost weight recently. Tests reveal the following: sodium level 152mEq/L, osmolarity 340mOsm/L, glucose level 125mg/dl, and potassium level of 3.8mEq/L. Which of the following nursing diagnoses is most appropriate for this client?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for this client is C: Deficient fluid volume related to osmotic diuresis induced by hypernatremia. The client's elevated sodium level of 152mEq/L indicates hypernatremia, which leads to osmotic diuresis and subsequent fluid loss. This results in deficient fluid volume, causing the client to urinate frequently and experience fatigue from lack of sleep. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Deficient fluid volume related to inability to conserve water is not the most appropriate diagnosis as the primary issue is the osmotic diuresis induced by hypernatremia, not the client's inability to conserve water. B: Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements related to hypermetabolic state is not the most appropriate diagnosis as the client's weight loss is likely due to fluid loss from osmotic diuresis, not a hypermetabolic state. D: Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements related to catab
Question 3 of 9
Which of the ff are the symptoms of basilar skull fracture? Choose all that apply
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Raccoon eyes. Basilar skull fracture can result in periorbital bruising, known as raccoon eyes, due to blood pooling in the soft tissues around the eyes. This occurs because the fracture involves the base of the skull near the orbits. Choice B: Amnesia is not a typical symptom of basilar skull fracture. Amnesia may occur in head injuries but is not specific to basilar skull fractures. Choice C: Halo sign is a term used to describe a ring of clear fluid surrounding a blood spot, typically seen in cases of a cerebrospinal fluid leak from the ear or nose, not specific to basilar skull fractures. Choice D: Paresthesia, which refers to abnormal sensations like tingling or numbness, is not a common symptom of basilar skull fractures. It is more associated with nerve damage rather than fractures involving the base of the skull.
Question 4 of 9
As the nurse collects data on a patient, which of the following is a symptom that may be found that the patient with anaphylaxis may be experiencing?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Wheezing. Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can lead to airway constriction and difficulty breathing, resulting in wheezing. Wheezing is a common symptom of anaphylaxis due to bronchospasm and airway swelling. Dermatitis (A) is a skin reaction, sinusitis (B) is inflammation of the sinuses, and delirium (C) is a state of mental confusion, which are not typical symptoms of anaphylaxis. Wheezing is a critical symptom in anaphylaxis as it indicates potential airway compromise and the need for immediate medical intervention.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse evaluates a client’s response to a nursing intervention and determines that the expected outcome was not achieved. What is the nurse’s most appropriate action?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reassess the client's condition. When an expected outcome is not achieved, the nurse must reassess the client's condition to identify the reasons for the lack of success. This step allows the nurse to gather more information, adjust the plan of care if necessary, and determine the most suitable course of action to help the client achieve the desired outcome. Choice A: Terminating the plan of care is premature without reassessing the client's condition and identifying potential barriers to success. Choice B: Modifying the plan of care may be necessary after reassessment but should not be the first step. Choice C: Reassigning care to another nurse does not address the underlying issues affecting the client's response to the intervention.
Question 6 of 9
If a patient has elevated pulmonary vascular pressures, the nurse understands that the patient is most likely to develop which of the ff. physiological cardiac changes?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Right ventricular hypertrophy. Elevated pulmonary vascular pressures lead to increased resistance in the pulmonary circulation, causing the right ventricle to work harder to pump blood to the lungs. Over time, this can result in hypertrophy of the right ventricle as it adapts to the increased workload. Left atrial atrophy (A) and right atrial atrophy (C) are unlikely as the atria are not directly affected by elevated pulmonary pressures. Left ventricular hypertrophy (B) is not the correct choice as it typically occurs in response to systemic hypertension, not pulmonary hypertension.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the ff. interventions can help minimize complications related to Hypercalcemia?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice A is correct: 1. Hypercalcemia can lead to dehydration due to increased urine output. 2. Encouraging 3 to 4 L of fluid daily helps prevent dehydration and promote renal excretion of excess calcium. 3. Adequate hydration reduces the risk of kidney stones and other complications associated with hypercalcemia. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: - Choice B (bed rest) does not directly address hypercalcemia complications. - Choice C (cough and deep breathe) is unrelated to managing hypercalcemia. - Choice D (apply heat to painful areas) does not address the underlying cause of hypercalcemia or its complications.
Question 8 of 9
A 23 y.o. woman is seen at an outpatient clinic for a routine Pap smear. When questioned, she states she is deciding whether to engage in sexual activity with a man she is just getting to know. She asks how she can tell if he has an STD. Which response by the nurse is best?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: The correct answer is D because it emphasizes the importance of medical examination and diagnostic testing to determine if the man has an STD. Step 2: Visual inspection (choice B) is not reliable as some STDs may not present with visible symptoms. Step 3: Relying solely on appearance and condom use (choices A and C) does not guarantee protection against all STDs. Step 4: Choice D is the best option as it advocates for seeking professional medical advice for accurate diagnosis and treatment.
Question 9 of 9
According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, which nursing diagnosis has the lowest priority for a client admitted to the intensive care unit with a diagnosis of congestive heart failure?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Risk for body image disturbance. In the context of Maslow's hierarchy of needs, physiological needs take precedence over psychological needs. For a client in the intensive care unit with congestive heart failure, ensuring physiological needs like airway clearance, urinary elimination, and coping are addressed first is crucial for survival. Body image disturbance is a higher-level psychological need and can be addressed once basic physiological needs are met. Therefore, addressing the risk for body image disturbance would have the lowest priority compared to the other options provided.