ATI RN
Age Specific Patient Care Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
Consider these three drugs: divalproex (Depakote), carbamazepine (Tegretol), gabapentin (Neurontin). Which drug also belongs with this group?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lamotrigine (Lamictal). All the drugs listed are commonly used in the treatment of epilepsy and mood disorders. Lamotrigine is often prescribed alongside divalproex, carbamazepine, and gabapentin as a mood stabilizer and antiepileptic medication. It works by stabilizing electrical activity in the brain and preventing seizures. Clonazepam (A) is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and seizures, not in the same class as the other drugs. Risperidone (C) and Aripiprazole (D) are antipsychotics used for schizophrenia and bipolar disorder, not primarily for epilepsy.
Question 2 of 5
An appropriate intervention for a client with an identified nursing diagnosis of Situational low self-esteem would be:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Engaging client in activities designed to permit success. This intervention is appropriate for addressing situational low self-esteem as it focuses on building the client's self-confidence through successful experiences. Engaging in activities that the client can excel at helps boost self-esteem and self-worth. By providing opportunities for success, the client can gain a sense of accomplishment, leading to improved self-esteem. A: Encouraging verbalization of feelings in a safe environment may be beneficial for emotional expression, but it does not directly address building self-esteem through success. B: Attempting to determine triggers to hallucinations is unrelated to addressing situational low self-esteem. D: Providing large muscle activities to relieve stress may be helpful for stress management but does not directly target improving self-esteem through success.
Question 3 of 5
A client who received chlorpromazine (Thorazine) for 15 years to treat schizophrenia developed tardive dyskinesia as evidenced by tongue thrusting and chewing motions. The physician discontinued the chlorpromazine and prescribed Seroquel (quetiapine). As a result of this change, the nurse should carefully monitor for:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Improvement in tardive dyskinesia. Tardive dyskinesia is a side effect of long-term antipsychotic use, like chlorpromazine. Quetiapine (Seroquel) is an atypical antipsychotic with a lower risk of causing tardive dyskinesia. By discontinuing chlorpromazine and switching to quetiapine, there is a higher likelihood of improvement or resolution of tardive dyskinesia symptoms. Options A and B are incorrect as they are related to other movement disorders caused by antipsychotics. Option D is incorrect as anticholinergic symptoms are not directly related to tardive dyskinesia improvement with the medication switch.
Question 4 of 5
A client with schizophrenia is medication compliant and has well-controlled symptoms. He has, however, never been successful in holding a job because of poor social skills and lack of understanding of basic job skills. The nurse case manager should consider referring the client:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: For psychosocial rehabilitation. This option is the most appropriate because the client is struggling with social skills and job-related skills. Psychosocial rehabilitation programs focus on improving social and vocational skills, which are essential for the client to succeed in holding a job. These programs also provide support and training tailored to the individual's needs. Referring the client to a day hospital program (A) may not address his specific vocational needs. Cognitive therapy (C) primarily focuses on addressing cognitive distortions and may not directly target social and vocational skills. Assertiveness training (D) may be helpful but may not fully address the client's broader vocational challenges.
Question 5 of 5
A patient with schizophrenia is admitted to the psychiatric unit in an acutely disturbed, violent state. He is given several doses of haloperidol (Haldol) and becomes calm and approachable. During rounds the nurse notices the patient has his head rotated to one side in a stiffly fixed position. His lower jaw is thrust forward and he appears severely anxious. The patient has ______, and the nurse should ______.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: a dystonic reaction"¦administer PRN IM benztropine (Cogentin). 1. Step: Identify the symptoms - The patient has head rotation, stiff fixed position, and lower jaw thrust forward, indicating dystonia. 2. Step: Understand dystonic reactions - Dystonia is an extrapyramidal side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol. 3. Step: Choose appropriate treatment - Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication used to treat acute dystonic reactions. 4. Step: Administer the medication - IM benztropine is the correct route for acute treatment of dystonia. Summary: - Choice B (tardive dyskinesia) is incorrect because the symptoms described are acute and not consistent with the gradual onset of tardive dyskinesia. - Choice C (waxy flexibility) is incorrect because it is a symptom of catatonia, not a side effect of ant