Congenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH) can be diagnosed on prenatal ultrasonography (between 16 and 24 wk of gestation) in > 50% of cases. Findings on ultrasonography may include the following EXCEPT

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Pediatric NCLEX Practice Quiz Questions

Question 1 of 5

Congenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH) can be diagnosed on prenatal ultrasonography (between 16 and 24 wk of gestation) in > 50% of cases. Findings on ultrasonography may include the following EXCEPT

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In the context of diagnosing congenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH) through prenatal ultrasonography, it is crucial to understand the significance of each finding to make an accurate diagnosis. The correct answer, "D) olighydramnios," is the exception among the options as it is not typically associated with CDH on prenatal ultrasonography. A) "chest mass" is a common finding in CDH due to the herniation of abdominal contents into the chest cavity, leading to a visible mass. B) "mediastinal shift" is often seen in CDH as abdominal contents herniate into the chest, causing displacement of mediastinal structures. C) "gastric bubble" can be visualized in the chest due to the presence of the stomach in an abnormal location in CDH cases. Understanding these findings is crucial for healthcare providers, especially pediatric nurses, as they play a vital role in caring for infants with CDH. Recognizing these ultrasound findings helps in early detection and appropriate management of CDH, which can significantly impact the outcomes for these infants. Nurses need to have a strong foundation in pediatric conditions to provide safe and effective care to this vulnerable population.

Question 2 of 5

The following definitions are true EXCEPT

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this pediatric NCLEX practice quiz question, the correct answer is D) Disruption sequence is a mechanical (uterine) force that alters the structure of intrinsically normal tissue. Explanation: Dysplasia sequence (option B) is a poor organization of cells into tissues or organs, which is a correct definition. A syndrome (option A) is also correctly defined as a pattern of multiple abnormalities related by pathophysiology and a common etiology. An association (option C) is defined as a nonrandom collection of malformations with an unclear relationship among them. Educational context: Understanding these definitions is crucial for healthcare professionals working with pediatric patients. Recognizing and correctly categorizing these terms can aid in diagnosing and treating children with various congenital conditions, genetic disorders, or developmental abnormalities. It is important to differentiate between these terms to provide appropriate care and interventions for pediatric patients.

Question 3 of 5

Common respiratory tract manifestations of neonatal bacterial infections is

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D) Empyema. Empyema refers to the accumulation of pus in a body cavity, in this case, the pleural space around the lungs. In neonates, bacterial infections can lead to empyema as a result of pneumonia or sepsis. This condition can cause respiratory distress, fever, and increased work of breathing in affected infants. Options A, B, and C (Ethmoiditis, Otitis media, Mastoiditis) are not common respiratory tract manifestations of neonatal bacterial infections. Ethmoiditis is inflammation of the ethmoid sinus, Otitis media is an infection of the middle ear, and Mastoiditis is an infection of the mastoid bone. While these conditions may occur in children, they are not typically associated with bacterial infections in the neonatal period. In an educational context, understanding common respiratory tract manifestations of neonatal bacterial infections is crucial for nurses and healthcare providers working with infants. Recognizing signs and symptoms early can lead to prompt treatment and improved outcomes for these vulnerable patients. Empyema is a serious condition that requires immediate medical attention to prevent complications such as respiratory failure.

Question 4 of 5

When screening for intraventricular hemorrhage (IVH), the best time to perform an ultrasound is

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In screening for intraventricular hemorrhage (IVH) in infants, performing an ultrasound on the third day of life is crucial. This timing is recommended because IVH often occurs around this time due to the fragile blood vessels in premature infants' brains. By the third day, the risk of IVH is more evident, allowing for accurate detection through ultrasound. Option A, performing the ultrasound on the first day of life, is too early to detect IVH accurately as it may not have developed by then. Option B, on the second day of life, is also premature for reliable detection of IVH, as the risk increases after the first 48 hours. Option D, on the fourth day of life, may be too late to intervene effectively if IVH is already present. Educationally, understanding the timing for IVH screening is vital for healthcare professionals working with newborns, especially premature infants who are at higher risk. Early detection of IVH can lead to prompt intervention and better outcomes for infants. This question reinforces the importance of timing in screening protocols and highlights the critical window for assessing IVH in neonates.

Question 5 of 5

Suicidal thoughts may be associated with some somatoform disorders. Which of the following disorder has a higher rate of suicidal ideation and attempts

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In the context of pediatric NCLEX practice, understanding the association between somatoform disorders and suicidal ideation is crucial for providing comprehensive care to pediatric patients. In this question, the correct answer is D) hypochondriasis. Hypochondriasis, now referred to as illness anxiety disorder in the DSM-5, is characterized by excessive worry about having a serious illness despite medical reassurance. Individuals with hypochondriasis often experience high levels of anxiety related to their health, leading to an increased risk of suicidal ideation and attempts. This heightened risk is primarily due to the intense fear and preoccupation with having a serious illness, which can significantly impact the individual's mental health. Regarding the other options: A) Undifferentiated somatoform disorder is a category that includes various somatic symptoms but does not specifically exhibit the same level of health anxiety and preoccupation as hypochondriasis. B) Conversion disorder involves the presentation of neurological symptoms that cannot be explained by a medical condition, and while distressing, it is not typically associated with the same level of health-related anxiety seen in hypochondriasis. C) Pain disorder is characterized by pain that causes significant distress or impairment, but it is not inherently linked to the same level of health anxiety and fear of serious illness as hypochondriasis. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of recognizing the psychological aspects of somatoform disorders, such as hypochondriasis, and their potential impact on a patient's mental well-being. It emphasizes the need for healthcare providers to assess and address not only the physical symptoms but also the emotional and psychological aspects of these conditions to provide holistic care to pediatric patients.

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