Concerning argatroban (direct thrombin inhibitor), the following is Wrong:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this NCLEX question on argatroban, the correct answer is C) Its level can be monitored by INR. This is because argatroban's anticoagulant effect is best monitored by aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) rather than INR (international normalized ratio). Option A) Given intravenously is correct as argatroban is indeed administered intravenically. Option B) Used in heparin-induced thrombocytopenia is correct as argatroban is specifically indicated for use in patients with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia. Option D) Not antagonized by protamine sulfate is also correct as protamine sulfate is not effective in reversing the anticoagulant effects of argatroban. Educationally, understanding the monitoring parameters and reversal agents for different anticoagulants is crucial for safe and effective patient care. Knowing the specific indications, administration routes, and monitoring parameters for drugs like argatroban is essential for nurses and healthcare professionals working with patients receiving anticoagulation therapy. This knowledge ensures proper dosing, monitoring, and management of potential complications related to these medications.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this NCLEX question on chemotherapy drugs, the correct answer is option D) B and C (Bromocriptine and L-dopa). Bromocriptine is a dopamine agonist used to treat acromegaly by reducing the excess growth hormone production. It is also used in Parkinsonism to help manage symptoms by mimicking the action of dopamine in the brain. L-dopa (levodopa) is a precursor to dopamine and is commonly used in Parkinsonism to increase dopamine levels in the brain, improving motor symptoms. Option A) Octreotide is not typically used in Parkinsonism but is used in acromegaly to inhibit growth hormone release. Educationally, understanding the specific uses of each drug in different conditions is crucial for nurses and healthcare professionals to provide safe and effective care to patients. Knowing the indications, mechanisms of action, and side effects of chemotherapy drugs like these can help in proper administration and monitoring of patients undergoing treatment.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this NCLEX question, the correct answer is D. Leuprolide and nafarelin are both Gonadotropin-Releasing Hormone (GnRH) analogs used in various medical conditions. Leuprolide and nafarelin are not used in subcutaneous (SC) pulses to treat endometriosis. The other options (A, B, and C) are incorrect. Option A is incorrect because leuprolide and nafarelin are indeed Gonadotropin-Releasing Hormone analogs, not used to stimulate ovulation in infertility as mentioned in option B. Option C is also incorrect as these drugs are given continuously to inhibit gonadotropin release in conditions like prostate cancer, not to increase gonadotropins. Educationally, understanding the correct use of chemotherapy drugs like leuprolide and nafarelin is crucial for nurses and healthcare professionals. Knowing the indications, contraindications, and administration of these drugs can help in providing safe and effective care to patients. This question reinforces the importance of precise medication administration knowledge to prevent medication errors and ensure optimal patient outcomes.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In this question on selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs), the correct answer is B) Tamoxifen is used in uterine cancer. Tamoxifen is commonly used in the treatment of breast cancer, not uterine cancer. The other options are as follows: A) Clomiphene is used as an ovulation-inducing agent, which is correct. Clomiphene is a fertility drug that helps stimulate ovulation in women who have trouble conceiving. C) Raloxifene is used in osteoporosis, which is also correct. Raloxifene is a SERM used to prevent and treat osteoporosis in postmenopausal women by mimicking the effects of estrogen on bone density. D) Raloxifene is associated with a high risk of venous thromboembolism, which is incorrect. While raloxifene can increase the risk of blood clots, the risk is not as high as with other SERMs like tamoxifen. Educationally, understanding the correct use of each chemotherapy drug is crucial for nurses and healthcare professionals, especially when caring for patients undergoing cancer treatment. Knowing the specific indications and potential side effects of each drug helps ensure safe and effective care. In the case of SERMs, understanding their diverse uses in conditions like fertility, cancer, and osteoporosis is vital for providing comprehensive patient care.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A) Depression is an adverse effect due to estrogen. In the context of oral contraceptives, estrogen is known to have an impact on mood and can contribute to feelings of depression in some individuals. This adverse effect is important to recognize and monitor in patients using oral contraceptives containing estrogen. Option B) May be safely given in liver disease is incorrect because oral contraceptives are contraindicated in liver disease due to their potential to exacerbate liver dysfunction and increase the risk of liver complications. Option C) Progestin-only minipills carry no risk of thromboembolism is incorrect because while progestin-only pills have a lower risk of thromboembolism compared to combined oral contraceptives, they still carry a small risk that should be considered, especially in high-risk individuals. Option D) Inhibit sperm penetration by rendering cervical mucosa more alkaline is incorrect because this describes the mechanism of action of spermicides, not oral contraceptives. In an educational context, understanding the side effects and contraindications of oral contraceptives is crucial for healthcare providers to ensure safe and effective use of these medications in their patients. Recognizing the specific adverse effects of estrogen in oral contraceptives can guide monitoring and management strategies for patients using these medications.