Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Placenta praevia is classified into four types based on the degree of coverage of the cervix by the placenta. Complete placenta praevia, where the internal os is completely covered by the placenta, is referred to as Type 4. This is the correct answer as it accurately describes the specific condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not correspond to the classification system for placenta praevia.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale for choice A: Calcium channel antagonists are the treatment of choice for achalasia as they help relax the lower esophageal sphincter, improving swallowing. This is a non-invasive option that can provide symptom relief for many patients. Summary for other choices: B: Intrasphincter botulinum injection is a temporary solution and not considered the treatment of choice. C: Pneumatic dilation is another option for achalasia but is typically used if calcium channel antagonists are ineffective. D: Myotomy and partial fundoplication is a more invasive surgical option and usually considered if other treatments fail.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because the Brain Trauma Foundation recommends intracranial pressure monitoring for patients with traumatic brain injury and a GCS of 3 to 8, regardless of the head CT findings. Intracranial pressure monitoring helps in the management of elevated intracranial pressure, which can be life-threatening. Abnormal head CT findings may indicate the need for immediate intervention, but intracranial pressure monitoring is still recommended for all patients in this GCS range to guide treatment decisions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypotension, age > 40 years old, and bradycardia are not factors that would exclude a patient from needing intracranial pressure monitoring in the presence of a GCS of 3 to 8.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step 1: Feminizing adrenal tumors are not always carcinomas, so A is incorrect. Step 2: Virilizing tumors in women can originate from adrenal or extra-adrenal sites, so C is incorrect. Step 3: Virilizing adrenal tumors are usually benign, especially in children, so D is incorrect. Step 4: B is correct as feminizing adrenal tumors are rare but are the most common type of adrenal tumor causing gender symptoms.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypogastrinemia and acid hyposecretion. Gastrinoma is a tumor that secretes excessive gastrin, leading to hypergastrinemia and increased acid secretion. However, due to a negative feedback mechanism, chronic exposure to high gastrin levels can cause downregulation of gastrin receptors on parietal cells, leading to decreased acid secretion. Therefore, in gastrinoma, despite high gastrin levels, acid secretion may be reduced due to this negative feedback loop. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the expected relationship between gastrin levels and acid secretion in gastrinoma.