Compared with atropine, scopolamine has all of the following properties EXCEPT:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because scopolamine is actually more potent than atropine in decreasing bronchial, salivary, and sweat gland secretions. The rationale is that scopolamine, being a tertiary amine, has a greater ability to cross the blood-brain barrier and exert stronger central effects compared to atropine. Scopolamine is also more potent in producing mydriasis and cycloplegia due to its greater affinity for muscarinic receptors in the eye muscles. Additionally, scopolamine has lower effects on the heart, bronchial muscle, and intestines compared to atropine. Therefore, B is the correct choice as scopolamine is not less potent in decreasing bronchial, salivary, and sweat gland secretions.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Propranolol is a nonselective beta receptor antagonist, blocking both beta-1 and beta-2 receptors. 2. Metoprolol and Atenolol are selective beta-1 receptor antagonists. 3. Acebutolol is a partial beta-1 antagonist with intrinsic sympathomimetic activity. 4. Propranolol is used for conditions requiring nonselective beta blockade, like hypertension and angina.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Phenobarbital is absorbed slowly due to its high lipid solubility, leading to a delayed onset of action. It has a long half-life and is metabolized in the liver. Flurazepam, Triazolam, and Temazepam are absorbed more rapidly and have shorter durations of action compared to Phenobarbital. Flurazepam is a long-acting benzodiazepine, while Triazolam and Temazepam have intermediate durations of action. Therefore, the correct answer is A (Phenobarbital) because of its slow absorption compared to the other choices.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Phenytoin is known to cause gingival hyperplasia. 2. This adverse effect is dose-related, meaning it occurs more frequently with higher doses. 3. Gingival hyperplasia is characterized by overgrowth of gum tissue. 4. It is not associated with physical or psychological dependence, exacerbated seizures, or extrapyramidal symptoms. Summary: Choice A is incorrect as phenytoin does not cause dependence. Choice B is incorrect as phenytoin does not worsen seizures. Choice D is incorrect as extrapyramidal symptoms are not typically caused by phenytoin.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Carbidopa inhibits the peripheral metabolism of levodopa, leading to increased levodopa blood levels and prolonged half-life. 2. By enhancing levodopa bioavailability, carbidopa allows for a significant reduction in levodopa dose, minimizing toxic effects. 3. Carbidopa also reduces the latency period before beneficial effects occur. Therefore, the correct answer is D, as all statements are true and supported by pharmacological principles. Other choices are incorrect as they do not encompass the comprehensive effects of combining carbidopa and levodopa.