ATI RN
microbiology an introduction test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Compared to primary immune response the secondary immune response
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the secondary immune response is quicker due to memory B and T cells being already present from the primary response. These memory cells can quickly recognize and respond to the antigen upon re-exposure, leading to a faster and more efficient immune response. Choices B and C are incorrect as the secondary response produces more antibodies and requires fewer antigen stimulations. Choice D is also incorrect as the secondary response is faster than the primary response.
Question 2 of 9
Which bacteria produce endotoxins that can cause septic shock?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Escherichia coli, Salmonella enterica, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa all produce endotoxins that can lead to septic shock. Endotoxins are part of the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria and can trigger a systemic inflammatory response if released into the bloodstream. E. coli and Salmonella are common causes of bacterial infections that can lead to septic shock, while P. aeruginosa is a known opportunistic pathogen that can produce endotoxins. Therefore, all three bacteria can cause septic shock by releasing endotoxins. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of these bacteria individually can produce endotoxins that contribute to the development of septic shock.
Question 3 of 9
During bacteriological examination of the purulent discharge obtained from a postoperative wound an inoculation on meat infusion agar has been performed. The inoculation has resulted in large colorless mucous colonies that in 24 hours with exposure to sunlight developed green-blue pigmentation and smell of honey or jasmine. Bacterioscopy revealed gram-negative lophotrichea. What bacterial culture is contained in purulent discharge?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a gram-negative bacterium known for its green-blue pigmentation and sweet, fruity odor. The large colorless mucous colonies that develop green-blue pigmentation and honey or jasmine smell point towards Pseudomonas aeruginosa. The bacterioscopy revealing gram-negative lophotrichea further supports this identification. Proteus vulgaris and Klebsiella osaenae do not typically exhibit the described characteristics. Streptomyces griseus is a soil bacterium known for its antibiotic production and is not commonly associated with wound infections.
Question 4 of 9
Bacteria are studied by:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Identification. Bacteria are studied by identification to determine their specific characteristics and differentiate between different species. Taxonomy (A) is the science of classification, not specific to bacteria. Classification (B) is the process of grouping organisms based on shared characteristics, not specific to bacteria. Nomenclature (D) is the naming system for organisms, not the primary method for studying bacteria. Therefore, identification (C) is the correct choice for studying bacteria.
Question 5 of 9
Toxoplasma gondii belongs to which group of eukaryotic organisms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Toxoplasma gondii is a protozoan parasite known to cause toxoplasmosis. It belongs to the group of eukaryotic organisms called protozoans because it is a single-celled organism with complex cellular structures. Protozoans are characterized by their ability to move and perform essential functions independently. Algae (choice A) are photosynthetic eukaryotic organisms, fungi (choice B) are non-photosynthetic eukaryotes that include molds and yeasts, and helminths (choice D) are multicellular parasitic worms. Therefore, the correct answer is C because Toxoplasma gondii is a protozoan parasite.
Question 6 of 9
While registering the child to the school Mantoux's test was made to define whether revaccination was needed test result is negative. What does this result of the test mean?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: Mantoux test measures cell-mediated immunity response to tuberculosis. Step 2: A negative result means no significant immune response to TB antigens. Step 3: Option A is incorrect, as it refers to antitoxic immunity, not cell immunity. Step 4: Option B is incorrect, as it mentions antibodies, not cell-mediated immunity. Step 5: Option C is incorrect, as it states absence of antibodies, not cell immunity. Step 6: Option D is correct as it directly correlates with the purpose of Mantoux test.
Question 7 of 9
Medical examination of the first-year pupils included Mantoux test. 15 pupils out of 35 had negative reaction. What actions should be taken against children with negative reaction?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: BCG vaccination. The Mantoux test is used to detect tuberculosis infection. A negative reaction means the child is not infected. BCG vaccination is recommended for individuals without prior TB infection to prevent severe forms of the disease. Antitoxin and rabies vaccinations are not related to TB and are not indicated in this scenario. Repeating the Mantoux test is unnecessary since a negative result indicates absence of TB infection.
Question 8 of 9
Which bacteria is commonly associated with foodborne illnesses caused by contaminated water?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vibrio cholerae. This bacterium is commonly associated with foodborne illnesses caused by contaminated water due to its ability to survive and multiply in water sources. Vibrio cholerae causes cholera, a severe gastrointestinal infection transmitted through contaminated food and water. Clostridium difficile, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, and Neisseria gonorrhoeae are not typically associated with foodborne illnesses caused by contaminated water. Clostridium difficile causes gastrointestinal infections linked to antibiotic use, Mycobacterium tuberculosis causes tuberculosis through respiratory transmission, and Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes sexually transmitted infections.
Question 9 of 9
Examples for chemical vaccines are:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Shiga anatoxin. This is because the Salk and Sabin vaccines are actually for polio, not chemical vaccines. HPV vaccine is a biological vaccine, not a chemical one. Shiga anatoxin is a chemical vaccine used against Shigella bacteria, making it the only correct choice for chemical vaccines in this question.