Considering the statement that communication is most effective when barriers are first removed, which of the following is recognized as an inhibiting factor in communication?

Questions 63

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ATI Nutrition Practice Test A 2019 Questions

Question 1 of 9

Considering the statement that communication is most effective when barriers are first removed, which of the following is recognized as an inhibiting factor in communication?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: Advanced age of the client.' Age can be a significant obstacle in communication due to factors such as hearing loss, cognitive decline, or memory issues, which all can hamper effective communication. Choices A, B, and C, while they may present challenges in communication, are not directly related to age and its influence on communication, making them incorrect. The issues presented by not using universally accepted abbreviations, incorrect grammar, and poor handwriting can be resolved through clarification, education, or the use of alternative communication methods, unlike the difficulties that can arise from advanced age.

Question 2 of 9

When can a patient's medical record become a potential issue for the doctor or nurse?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A medical record becomes a potential issue for a doctor or a nurse when it is inaccurate, incomplete, or inadequate. This is because a medical record is a key tool for healthcare professionals to track a patient's history, treatment, and progress. If the record is not accurate or complete, it can lead to misdiagnosis, incorrect treatment, or other potential problems in patient care. While missing records (Choice C) could be a problem, they do not directly implicate the doctor or nurse in the same way that inaccurate or inadequate records do. An extensive record (Choice A) or a record being subpoenaed in court (Choice B) are not inherently problematic for healthcare professionals and do not necessarily reflect negatively on their work.

Question 3 of 9

Which of the following is reflected in an ECG due to hypokalemia?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Hypokalemia, a condition characterized by low levels of potassium in the blood, is reflected in an ECG by a widening QRS Complex and a U wave. This is because potassium plays a key role in the electrical activity of the heart, and its deficiency can lead to abnormalities in the heart's rhythm as represented by these specific changes on the ECG. Choice A is incorrect as tall T waves and pathologic Q waves are more commonly associated with hyperkalemia or myocardial infarction, respectively, rather than hypokalemia. Choices C and D are also incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the ECG changes caused by hypokalemia.

Question 4 of 9

What characterizes Obsessive Compulsive Disorder?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Obsessive Compulsive Disorder (OCD) is characterized by the uncontrollable impulse to perform an act or ritual repeatedly (Choice A). This is driven by recurring unwanted and disturbing thoughts (Choice C), but the distinguishing factor is the compulsive behavior, making choice A the most accurate. While choice B can be seen as true, it lacks the specific detail of the compulsive behavior that makes A a better answer. Choice D is not incorrect, but it uses terminology that is less precise and less commonly used to describe OCD, making it a less accurate choice than A. The provided rationale is not relevant to the question.

Question 5 of 9

How is an ear infection that persists for less than 14 days classified?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Acute Ear Infection is the correct answer because it typically refers to an infection that is short-lived and often severe, typically lasting less than 14 days. Chronic Ear Infection (Choice B) is incorrect as it refers to an ear infection that lasts for a long time or recurs often, typically more than three months. Mastoiditis (Choice A) is a complication of a middle ear infection and not an ear infection itself. Otitis Media (Choice D) is a general term for inflammation or infection in the middle ear, which can be either acute or chronic, so it's not specific enough to be the correct answer. Understanding the duration and severity of symptoms can help in identifying the type of ear infection, facilitating appropriate treatment and prevention of complications.

Question 6 of 9

Which of the following is a normal change observed in an elderly individual?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, frequent urination. As people age, they may experience physiological changes that can lead to an increased frequency of urination. This is due to a decrease in bladder capacity and increased bladder irritability, which are normal age-related changes. On the contrary, the sense of taste (Choice A) and appetite (Choice B) often decrease with age, not increase. As for Choice D, the lens of the eye actually thickens with age, not thins, leading to conditions like presbyopia. Therefore, Choices A, B, and D are incorrect.

Question 7 of 9

When assessing older adult clients for malnutrition at an adult day care center, which risk factors should the nurse consider?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Both A and B. Dental problems and depression are both significant risk factors for malnutrition in older adults. Dental problems can lead to difficulty in chewing and swallowing, resulting in reduced food intake. On the other hand, depression can cause changes in appetite and decreased interest in eating, which can also contribute to malnutrition. Although the ability to prepare meals is important, it is not specifically identified as a risk factor for malnutrition within the context of this question. Therefore, choices A and B are the most appropriate answers.

Question 8 of 9

In which of the following conditions does a person need to sit, stand, or use multiple pillows when lying down?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Orthopnea. Orthopnea is a medical condition in which a person has difficulty breathing while lying down. To alleviate this difficulty, the person may need to sit, stand, or use multiple pillows. On the other hand, Dyspnea refers to general shortness of breath which is not specifically related to the position of the body. Eupnea is the term for normal, unlabored breathing, and Apnea is a condition characterized by the cessation of breathing. Thus, none of these other choices directly relate to the need to adjust body position or use aids like multiple pillows to breathe comfortably when lying down.

Question 9 of 9

Which individual would be at the greatest risk for deficiencies in water-soluble vitamins?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'An individual who consumes a diet high in processed foods.' Processed foods are often deficient in water-soluble vitamins such as vitamin C and B vitamins, which can lead to deficiencies. On the other hand, fruits, vegetables, and organ meats are rich sources of these vitamins, so individuals who consume these regularly are less likely to develop deficiencies. While dairy products do contain some water-soluble vitamins, they are not depleted as quickly as they are in a diet high in processed foods, making a deficiency less likely.

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