ATI RN
ATI Nutrition Practice Test A 2019 Questions
Question 1 of 5
Considering the statement that communication is most effective when barriers are first removed, which of the following is recognized as an inhibiting factor in communication?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: Advanced age of the client.' Age can be a significant obstacle in communication due to factors such as hearing loss, cognitive decline, or memory issues, which all can hamper effective communication. Choices A, B, and C, while they may present challenges in communication, are not directly related to age and its influence on communication, making them incorrect. The issues presented by not using universally accepted abbreviations, incorrect grammar, and poor handwriting can be resolved through clarification, education, or the use of alternative communication methods, unlike the difficulties that can arise from advanced age.
Question 2 of 5
What is considered fast breathing in a 13-month-old child if the respiratory rate (RR) exceeds which value?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the context of pediatric care, a respiratory rate of more than 60 breaths per minute in a child aged 13 months is considered fast breathing, hence option 'C' is correct. Options 'A', 'B', and 'D' are incorrect as they do not meet the specified criteria for fast breathing in a 13-month-old. Effective nursing care involves comprehensive assessments that address all aspects of a patient's condition, including monitoring respiratory rates, to ensure that interventions are appropriately targeted and outcomes are optimized.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following interventions should be considered the highest priority when caring for June, who has hemiparesis secondary to a stroke?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Apply antiembolic stockings'. In the case of a patient who has experienced a stroke and is suffering from hemiparesis, the highest priority intervention is to prevent further complications such as deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which can be life-threatening. Antiembolic stockings are used to increase venous blood flow velocity and reduce the risk of DVT. Choice 'A', positioning June in an upright lateral position, while important for overall care, is not the highest priority. Choice 'B', performing range of motion exercises, is an important part of recovery but not the immediate priority. Choice 'D', using hand rolls or pillows for support, is also a valuable intervention but does not address the most pressing risk of further complications.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following is reflected in an ECG due to hypokalemia?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hypokalemia, a condition characterized by low levels of potassium in the blood, is reflected in an ECG by a widening QRS Complex and a U wave. This is because potassium plays a key role in the electrical activity of the heart, and its deficiency can lead to abnormalities in the heart's rhythm as represented by these specific changes on the ECG. Choice A is incorrect as tall T waves and pathologic Q waves are more commonly associated with hyperkalemia or myocardial infarction, respectively, rather than hypokalemia. Choices C and D are also incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the ECG changes caused by hypokalemia.
Question 5 of 5
Where should a nurse auscultate the apex beat?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct location to auscultate the apex beat is at the fifth intercostal space, along the midclavicular line. This is where the apical impulse, also known as the point of maximal impulse (PMI), can be best heard. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect anatomical locations for auscultating the apex beat, which makes them incorrect choices. Auscultating at the correct location allows healthcare providers to assess the heart's function and detect any abnormalities in heart sounds, which is crucial for comprehensive patient care.
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