ATI RN
Cardiovascular Drug Interactions PDF Questions
Question 1 of 5
Combined chemotherapy of tuberculosis is used to:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decrease mycobacterium drug-resistance. Combined chemotherapy of tuberculosis involves using multiple drugs to target different stages of the bacteria's life cycle, reducing the chances of resistance developing. This approach is effective in preventing the bacteria from adapting and becoming resistant to any single drug. Explanation: 1. Using multiple drugs targets different mechanisms of action, making it harder for the bacteria to develop resistance. 2. Combination therapy can also prevent the growth of drug-resistant strains by attacking the bacteria from multiple angles. 3. By reducing the likelihood of resistance, combined chemotherapy increases the effectiveness of treatment and improves patient outcomes. Summary: B: Increase mycobacterium drug-resistance - This is incorrect as combined chemotherapy aims to decrease, not increase, drug resistance. C: Decrease the antimicrobial activity - This is incorrect as combined chemotherapy actually enhances the antimicrobial activity against the tuberculosis bacteria. D: Decrease the onset of antimycobacterial drugs biotransformation - This is
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following drugs most likely produced the greatest increase in diuresis in the subject?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D (Drug S) because it is a loop diuretic, which acts on the ascending loop of Henle to inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption, leading to a significant increase in diuresis. Loop diuretics are the most potent diuretics among the options provided. Drug P (Choice A) is a thiazide diuretic that acts on the distal convoluted tubule and is less potent than loop diuretics. Drug Q (Choice B) is a potassium-sparing diuretic that acts on the collecting ducts and is weaker in terms of diuretic effect compared to loop diuretics. Drug R (Choice C) is an aldosterone antagonist that acts on the distal tubules and collecting ducts, but it is less potent compared to loop diuretics in increasing diuresis.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following pairs of drugs would be appropriate for a patient recently diagnosed with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Isosorbide mononitrate and nifedipine. Isosorbide mononitrate dilates coronary arteries, reducing myocardial oxygen demand. Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker that helps reduce cardiac workload. Together, they can help manage symptoms of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. Choice B (Nitroglycerin and captopril) is incorrect because captopril is an ACE inhibitor used for heart failure, not hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. Choice C (Nitroglycerin and verapamil) is incorrect because verapamil can worsen symptoms due to its negative inotropic effects. Choice D (Verapamil and metoprolol) is incorrect because metoprolol is a beta-blocker, which can worsen symptoms in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy by reducing heart rate and contractility.
Question 4 of 5
A drug lacking vasodilator properties that is useful in angina is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is B) Metoprolol. Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that is useful in angina by reducing the heart rate and blood pressure, thus decreasing the workload of the heart. It does not possess vasodilator properties but works by improving the oxygen supply-demand balance of the heart. Option A) Isosorbide dinitrate and option D) Nitroglycerin are both vasodilators commonly used in angina to dilate blood vessels, reduce the workload on the heart, and improve blood flow to the heart muscle. Option C) Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker that also works by dilating blood vessels and reducing the workload on the heart. In an educational context, understanding the mechanisms of action of different cardiovascular medications is crucial for healthcare professionals to make informed decisions in patient care. Knowing which drugs have vasodilator properties and which do not is essential in selecting the most appropriate treatment for patients with angina. This knowledge helps in optimizing therapy, managing drug interactions, and preventing potential adverse effects.
Question 5 of 5
The chief use of levoarterenol is to treat
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Levonordefrin is primarily used to treat shock due to its potent vasoconstrictive properties, making it effective in increasing blood pressure and restoring perfusion to vital organs in cases of severe hypotension. In the context of shock, levoarterenol acts by stimulating alpha-1 adrenergic receptors, leading to peripheral vasoconstriction and subsequent elevation of blood pressure. Diabetes (Option B) is not a primary indication for levoarterenol use. In fact, caution is warranted in diabetic patients due to the potential for worsening hyperglycemia as a result of its adrenergic effects. Hypertension (Option C) is not a typical indication for levoarterenol use as it can exacerbate hypertension due to its vasoconstrictive properties. Cardiac arrhythmias (Option D) are not treated with levoarterenol as it can potentially worsen arrhythmias due to its adrenergic effects on the heart. Educationally, understanding the specific indications for cardiovascular drugs like levoarterenol is crucial for healthcare professionals to ensure safe and effective patient care. Knowledge of drug interactions, contraindications, and appropriate use is fundamental in the management of cardiovascular conditions and emergencies.