ATI RN
Postpartum Body Changes Questions
Question 1 of 5
Cloxacillin 500 mg by mouth four times per day for 10 days has been ordered for a client with a breast abscess. The client states that she is unable to swallow pills. The oral solution is available as 125 mg/5 mL. How many mL of medicine should the woman take per dose? (Calculate to the nearest whole.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is option A) 20 mL. To calculate this, we first need to determine the total daily dose required, which is 2,000 mg (500 mg x 4 doses). Next, we divide the total daily dose by the concentration of the oral solution to find out how many mL to administer per dose. There are a few key points to consider when analyzing the answer choices: - Option A (20 mL) is correct because it aligns with the calculated dosage needed for the client based on the concentration of the oral solution. - Options B, C, and D are marked as "NA," indicating they are not applicable. This is because these options do not provide a numerical value for the amount of medication the client should take per dose. Educationally, this question is essential for healthcare professionals working with postpartum clients to understand how to calculate and administer medication dosages accurately, especially when dealing with specific patient preferences or needs, such as difficulty swallowing pills. It reinforces the importance of dosage calculations, understanding medication concentrations, and ensuring safe and effective administration to provide optimal care for clients with postpartum complications like breast abscesses.
Question 2 of 5
A mother, G4 P4004, is 15 minutes postpartum. Her baby weighed 4,595 grams at birth. For which of the following complications should the nurse monitor this client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the postpartum period, the nurse should monitor a mother closely for complications. In this case, the correct answer is B) Hemorrhage. After delivery, the uterus should contract to control bleeding. However, in a mother who gave birth to a large baby (4,595 grams) and is only 15 minutes postpartum, there is a risk of uterine atony leading to postpartum hemorrhage. Option A) Seizures are not typically associated with immediate postpartum body changes unless there are underlying conditions like eclampsia. Option C) Infection is a concern in the postpartum period but is less likely to present within the first 15 minutes postpartum. It usually takes some time for signs of infection to develop. Option D) Thrombosis is a risk postpartum due to changes in blood clotting factors, but it is not a common immediate concern at 15 minutes postpartum. Educationally, understanding the risks and complications in the postpartum period is crucial for nurses to provide appropriate care and interventions promptly. Monitoring for signs of hemorrhage, infection, and other complications allows for early detection and intervention, promoting the well-being of both the mother and the baby.
Question 3 of 5
A woman with postpartum depression has been prescribed Zoloft (sertraline) 50 mg daily. Which of the following should the client be taught about the medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B) Therapeutic effect may be delayed a week or more. This is the most important information to provide to the client because it helps set realistic expectations about when they can expect to see improvements in their symptoms. It is crucial for the client to understand that the medication may take some time to start working, so they need to be patient and continue taking it as prescribed. Option A is incorrect because chamomile tea is not known to potentiate the effects of sertraline. Mixing herbal remedies with prescribed medications can be dangerous and should be avoided without consulting a healthcare provider. Option C is incorrect because sertraline does not necessarily have to be taken whole. It can be taken with or without food, but it is important to follow the specific instructions provided by the healthcare provider or pharmacist. Option D is incorrect because while weight gain can be a side effect of sertraline, it is not commonly seen to the extent of up to ten pounds. Weight changes can vary from person to person, and it is essential to monitor and discuss any changes with a healthcare provider. In an educational context, it is crucial to provide accurate and clear information to clients about their medications to ensure they understand how to take them safely and effectively. Setting realistic expectations and dispelling myths or misconceptions about medication can help promote adherence and better outcomes for the client.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse assesses a 2-day postpartum, breastfeeding client. The nurse notes blood on the mother's breast pad and a crack on the mother's nipple. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform at this time?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct action for the nurse to take is to provide the woman with a tube of topical lanolin (Option B). This is because the presence of blood on the breast pad and a crack on the nipple indicate a common issue known as nipple trauma, often associated with breastfeeding. Topical lanolin can help soothe and protect the cracked nipple, promoting healing and providing relief to the mother. Option A is incorrect because washing with soap can further irritate the already sensitive area and potentially worsen the condition. Option C is incorrect as it can cause unnecessary worry and stress to the mother; ingesting a small amount of blood is generally not harmful to the baby. Option D is not the best course of action as a topical anesthetic may not address the underlying issue of nipple trauma and could potentially be harmful to the newborn if transferred during breastfeeding. Educationally, it is crucial for nurses to be knowledgeable about postpartum body changes and common breastfeeding issues to provide effective care and support to new mothers. Understanding the appropriate interventions for nipple trauma can help prevent complications and promote successful breastfeeding experiences for both the mother and baby.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse administers RhoGAM to a postpartum client. Which of the following is the goal of the medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: RhoGAM is administered to a postpartum client who is Rh-negative to prevent the mother's immune system from producing antibodies against Rh-positive fetal blood cells, a condition known as Rh incompatibility. Option A, "Inhibit the mother's active immune response," is the correct answer because RhoGAM works by suppressing the mother's immune response to Rh-positive blood cells she may have been exposed to during pregnancy or delivery. Option B, "Aggressively destroy the Rh antibodies produced by the mother," is incorrect because RhoGAM does not destroy existing Rh antibodies but rather prevents their formation. Option C, "Prevent fetal cells from migrating throughout the mother's circulation," is incorrect as RhoGAM does not act on fetal cells but on the mother's immune system. Option D, "Change the maternal blood type to Rh-positive," is inaccurate as RhoGAM does not alter the mother's blood type. In an educational context, understanding the rationale behind administering RhoGAM is crucial for nurses caring for postpartum clients. By grasping the purpose of this medication, nurses can provide safe and effective care to prevent complications related to Rh incompatibility in future pregnancies. It also highlights the importance of maternal-fetal blood type compatibility and the role of immunoprophylaxis in preventing hemolytic disease of the newborn.