Clinical manifestations of Huntington’s disease include:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because Huntington's disease is a neurodegenerative disorder that presents with a triad of symptoms: abnormal involuntary movements (chorea), intellectual decline, and emotional disturbances. Abnormal involuntary movements are a hallmark feature, while cognitive decline and emotional disturbances are also commonly observed. Therefore, all three manifestations are typically present in individuals with Huntington's disease. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of these symptoms alone does not encompass the full spectrum of clinical manifestations seen in Huntington's disease.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct initial action for the nurse is to choose option C: Notify the physician. Increasing oxygen without a healthcare provider's order can be harmful, especially in COPD patients prone to retaining carbon dioxide. The nurse should communicate the situation to the physician to assess the client's condition and adjust the oxygen therapy appropriately. Option A is incorrect as it neglects the potential risks of high oxygen levels. Option B is incorrect as immediate decrease without proper assessment can be dangerous. Option D is not the priority when the client's oxygen therapy needs evaluation.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Obesity. Obesity is a well-established risk factor for developing type 2 diabetes mellitus due to the increased resistance of body cells to insulin. This leads to elevated blood sugar levels. Hypotension (A) is low blood pressure and is not typically associated with type 2 diabetes. Kidney dysfunction (C) is a complication of diabetes but not a direct correlation. Sex (D) does not have a direct link to the development of type 2 diabetes. Therefore, the most likely correlation is with obesity due to its impact on insulin resistance.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: - The correct answer is A, "Have you been exposed recently to anyone with an infection?" because it helps assess potential sources of infection causing the low-grade fever and other symptoms. - Choice B is irrelevant as the client's current sore throat is not the main concern. - Choice C and D do not address the potential infectious etiology of the symptoms. - Overall, assessing recent exposure to infections is crucial in identifying possible sources of the client's symptoms.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D - Patency of airway and adequacy of respiration. This is the most important assessment during the acute stage of an unconscious patient like Mr. Franco because maintaining a clear airway and ensuring proper breathing are crucial for sustaining life. Without a patent airway and adequate respiration, the patient's oxygen supply could be compromised, leading to serious complications such as hypoxia or respiratory failure. Monitoring the airway and respiratory status takes precedence over other assessments in this scenario. A: Level of awareness and response to pain - While important, assessing level of awareness and response to pain is secondary to ensuring a patent airway and adequate respiration in an unconscious patient. B: Papillary reflexes and response to sensory stimuli - While these assessments provide valuable information about neurological function, they are not as critical as maintaining a clear airway and proper breathing in an unconscious patient. C: Coherence and sense of hearing - Coherence and sense of hearing are not as vital as

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Human papilloma virus (HPV) infection at age 32. HPV infection is a well-known risk factor for cervical cancer as certain strains of HPV can lead to cellular changes in the cervix that may progress to cancer. Here's the rationale: 1. HPV is a known risk factor: HPV is a sexually transmitted infection that is strongly linked to the development of cervical cancer. 2. Age of infection: The client's history of acquiring HPV at age 32 is significant as long-standing HPV infection increases the risk of cervical cancer. 3. Other choices are not directly linked: Choices A, B, and C are not directly associated with an increased risk of cervical cancer. Age of sexual activity onset, spontaneous abortion, and eclampsia are not established risk factors for cervical cancer.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: canned tomato juice. Canned tomato juice is high in sodium content, which would not be suitable for a patient on a 2 gm sodium diet for heart failure. Sodium restriction is crucial in managing heart failure to reduce fluid retention and strain on the heart. Whole wheat bread, beef tenderloin strips, and apples are lower in sodium content compared to canned tomato juice, making them more appropriate choices for someone on a low-sodium diet.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Loratadine is typically dosed once daily, not twice daily, for allergic rhinitis. 2. Taking it twice daily may increase the risk of side effects without added benefit. 3. The client's dosing schedule reflects a misunderstanding of the medication regimen. 4. Option A is incorrect because loratadine is available in 10mg tablets. 5. Option B is incorrect as loratadine can be taken with or without food. 6. Option D is incorrect as Claritin is a common trade name for loratadine.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because it involves collaboration with the client to validate their experience. It shows respect for the client's perspective and promotes open communication. Choice A is incorrect as it lacks client involvement. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses on the nurse's interpretation rather than the client's experience. Choice C is incorrect as it may come off as accusatory or judgmental, lacking empathy.