ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Test Bank Free Questions
Question 1 of 9
Clinical manifestations of Huntington’s disease include:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because Huntington's disease is a neurodegenerative disorder that presents with a triad of symptoms: abnormal involuntary movements (chorea), intellectual decline, and emotional disturbances. Abnormal involuntary movements are a hallmark feature, while cognitive decline and emotional disturbances are also commonly observed. Therefore, all three manifestations are typically present in individuals with Huntington's disease. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of these symptoms alone does not encompass the full spectrum of clinical manifestations seen in Huntington's disease.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the ff nursing interventions may reduce hemostasis and decrease the potential for thrombophlebitis for a client with a neurologic disorder?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Keep extremities at neutral position. This intervention promotes proper blood flow and reduces the risk of thrombophlebitis by preventing compression or restriction of blood vessels. Removing and reapplying elastic stockings (choice A) can disrupt circulation and increase the risk of thrombophlebitis. Changing the client's position (choice C) may not directly address hemostasis or thrombophlebitis. Using a flotation mattress (choice D) is not specifically focused on maintaining proper positioning of the extremities to promote circulation.
Question 3 of 9
There seems to be a positive correlation between type 2 diabetes mellitus and:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Obesity. Obesity is a well-established risk factor for developing type 2 diabetes mellitus due to the increased resistance of body cells to insulin. This leads to elevated blood sugar levels. Hypotension (A) is low blood pressure and is not typically associated with type 2 diabetes. Kidney dysfunction (C) is a complication of diabetes but not a direct correlation. Sex (D) does not have a direct link to the development of type 2 diabetes. Therefore, the most likely correlation is with obesity due to its impact on insulin resistance.
Question 4 of 9
A client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is receiving zidovudine (azidothymidine, AZT [Retrovir]). To check for adverse drug effects, the nurse should monitor the results of laboratory test?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Platelet count. Zidovudine (AZT) is known to cause bone marrow suppression, leading to decreased platelet production. Monitoring platelet count is crucial to detect early signs of thrombocytopenia, a common adverse effect of AZT. Rationale: A) RBC count: AZT can cause anemia, not specifically affecting the RBC count. B) Serum calcium: AZT does not typically affect calcium levels. C) Fasting blood glucose: AZT can cause hyperglycemia, but fasting blood glucose monitoring is not as critical as monitoring platelet count for AZT therapy.
Question 5 of 9
Which vein should be used first when initiating IV therapy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Basilic vein. It is preferred for IV therapy due to its size, accessibility, and lower risk of complications. Basilic vein is deep and stable, aiding in successful catheter insertion and reduced risk of infiltration. Jugular vein (A) is not typically used due to the high risk of complications like infection. Brachiocephalic (C) and Axillary (D) veins are less commonly used as they are smaller and more prone to complications compared to the Basilic vein. In summary, the Basilic vein is the optimal choice for initiating IV therapy due to its size, accessibility, stability, and lower risk of complications.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following is the most important assessment during the acute stage of an unconscious patient like Mr. Franco?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D - Patency of airway and adequacy of respiration. This is the most important assessment during the acute stage of an unconscious patient like Mr. Franco because maintaining a clear airway and ensuring proper breathing are crucial for sustaining life. Without a patent airway and adequate respiration, the patient's oxygen supply could be compromised, leading to serious complications such as hypoxia or respiratory failure. Monitoring the airway and respiratory status takes precedence over other assessments in this scenario. A: Level of awareness and response to pain - While important, assessing level of awareness and response to pain is secondary to ensuring a patent airway and adequate respiration in an unconscious patient. B: Papillary reflexes and response to sensory stimuli - While these assessments provide valuable information about neurological function, they are not as critical as maintaining a clear airway and proper breathing in an unconscious patient. C: Coherence and sense of hearing - Coherence and sense of hearing are not as vital as
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following parts of neuron transmits impulses away from the cell body?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Axon. The axon is the part of the neuron that transmits impulses away from the cell body towards other neurons or target cells. It is coated with a myelin sheath, which helps speed up the transmission of impulses. Dendrites (A) receive signals from other neurons, the neurolemma (B) is the outermost layer of the myelin sheath, and the synapse (D) is the junction between two neurons where neurotransmitters are released. Therefore, the axon is the only part of the neuron specifically responsible for transmitting impulses away from the cell body.
Question 8 of 9
A patient teaching plan should include which of the ff. lifestyle modifications to help control hypertension?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Regular aerobic exercise helps lower blood pressure by improving heart health and circulation. Step 2: Exercise reduces stress and promotes weight loss, factors that contribute to hypertension control. Step 3: Alcohol consumption can raise blood pressure and should be limited or avoided. Step 4: Smoking and using low-tar cigarettes can still raise blood pressure and have other negative health effects. Step 5: Daily multivitamin supplements do not directly impact blood pressure control.
Question 9 of 9
Before a cancer receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) resumes a normal diet, the nurse teaches him about dietary sources of minerals. Which foods are good sources of zinc?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Whole grains and meats. Zinc is found in high amounts in these foods. Meats, especially red meats and seafood, are rich sources of zinc. Whole grains like wheat, rice, and oats also contain significant amounts of zinc. Other choices are incorrect because fruits and vegetables are not typically good sources of zinc. Yeast and legumes are good sources of other minerals but not specifically zinc. It is important for the cancer patient to consume zinc-rich foods to support their immune system and overall health during recovery.