Clinical diagnosis of polyhydramnios is based on an excessive amount of amniotic fluid exceeding

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 3000 ml. Polyhydramnios is diagnosed when the amniotic fluid volume exceeds 2000 to 3000 ml. This is because amniotic fluid serves important functions in protecting the fetus and aiding in fetal movements. Having an excessively high volume can lead to complications such as preterm labor, fetal malpresentation, and placental abruption. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not fall within the range typically used to diagnose polyhydramnios. A: 1500 ml and C: 1900 ml are below the threshold, while B: 2500 ml is at the lower end but still not exceeding the diagnostic range for polyhydramnios.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Within the first week of birth. Classical vitamin K deficiency bleeding typically occurs within the first week of birth due to low levels of vitamin K in newborns. During this time, infants are at a higher risk of bleeding complications if not supplemented with vitamin K. Choice A is incorrect because bleeding usually occurs after the first 24 hours. Choice C is incorrect as it does not specify a specific time frame within the neonatal stage. Choice D is incorrect as classical vitamin K deficiency bleeding is typically seen within the first week, not necessarily during the entire infancy stage.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because intraperitoneal uterine rupture involves a tear that goes through all layers of the uterus - endometrium, myometrium, and peritoneum. This type of rupture extends beyond the muscular layer of the uterus and into the peritoneal cavity. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not include the peritoneum, which is a key component of intraperitoneal uterine rupture. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer as it accurately describes the layers involved in this type of rupture.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The presenting diameter in brow presentation is Submentobregmatic (choice A) because it refers to the distance from the submentum (chin) to the bregma (anterior fontanelle). This is the appropriate measurement for the brow presentation as the brow is the prominent part between the forehead and the chin. Choice B (Suboccipitofrontal) is incorrect because it refers to the distance from the subocciput to the frontal bone, which is not relevant to brow presentation. Choice C (Occipitalfrontal) is incorrect because it describes the distance from the occiput to the frontal bone, which again is not specific to brow presentation. Choice D (Mentovertical) is incorrect as it denotes the distance from the chin to the vertex, which is not the relevant measurement for brow presentation.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step 1: Atony of the uterus is the most common cause of primary postpartum hemorrhage due to inadequate uterine contractions. Step 2: Trauma of the genital tract can lead to bleeding but is not as common as atony of the uterus in postpartum hemorrhage. Step 3: Blood coagulation disorder can contribute to excessive bleeding but is not the primary cause of postpartum hemorrhage. Step 4: Prolonged 3rd stage can result in postpartum hemorrhage but is typically secondary to uterine atony.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because placenta praevia can lead to life-threatening bleeding during labor due to the placenta partially or completely covering the cervix. This condition poses a high risk of morbidity and mortality to both the mother and the baby. A: Incorrect. Bleeding in placenta praevia is not related to the segment preparing for labor. B: Incorrect. While bleeding is due to placental issues, it is specifically due to the placenta's abnormal positioning, not a pathological process. C: Incorrect. Bleeding can occur before 37 weeks in cases of placenta praevia, and the timing of bleeding is not linked to gestational age.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because an estimated fetal weight below 3500 grams indicates a lower risk of complications during childbirth. Higher fetal weight increases the likelihood of shoulder dystocia and birth injuries. Maternal body mass index, gestational age, and maternal age do not directly impact the likelihood of a favorable outcome during a trial of scar.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because gestational diabetes can lead to macrosomia, which is excessive fetal growth due to high blood sugar levels in the mother. This occurs as the fetus receives excess glucose from the mother, resulting in increased fat deposition and larger birth weight. Congenital anomalies (B) are not directly caused by gestational diabetes but by genetic or environmental factors. Reduced fetal movements (C) are not a typical effect of gestational diabetes. While gestational diabetes can increase the risk of preterm birth (D), the primary impact on fetal development is macrosomia.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Fine needle aspiration does not allow grading of tumors. Rationale: 1. Fine needle aspiration (FNA) collects cells for cytology evaluation, not tissue for grading. 2. Grading requires evaluation of tissue architecture, which is not possible with FNA. 3. FNA is useful for diagnosis but not for determining tumor grade. Summary: A: Incorrect - Excisional biopsy is preferred over incisional biopsy to obtain the entire tumor for diagnosis and grading. B: Incorrect - Core needle biopsy has a lower false positive rate compared to fine needle aspiration. D: Incorrect - Core needle and incisional biopsies differ in the amount of tissue sampled and potential for false results.