Clinical diagnosis of polyhydramnios is based on an amount of amniotic fluid exceeding

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 3000 ml. Polyhydramnios is diagnosed when the amniotic fluid volume exceeds 2000-3000 ml. This amount is considered excessive and can indicate various maternal or fetal health conditions. Choice A (1500 ml) is too low to qualify as polyhydramnios. Choice C (1900 ml) falls within the normal range of amniotic fluid volume. Choice D (2500 ml) is close to the threshold but may not always be considered excessive. Therefore, the correct diagnosis of polyhydramnios is based on an amniotic fluid volume exceeding 3000 ml.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement about shoulder dystocia is A: It’s an impaction of the anterior shoulder after delivery of the head. This is accurate as shoulder dystocia occurs when the anterior shoulder becomes impacted behind the maternal pubic symphysis. This can lead to difficulty delivering the shoulders after the head is delivered. B is incorrect as shoulder dystocia involves the anterior shoulder, not the posterior. C is incorrect as shoulder dystocia is not related to compound presentation. D is incorrect as shoulder dystocia is an obstetric emergency that requires prompt intervention to prevent complications for both the mother and the baby.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Delay in second stage of labor. Forceps delivery is indicated when there is a delay in the second stage of labor to expedite delivery and prevent maternal and fetal complications. This could be due to factors such as maternal exhaustion, fetal distress, or ineffective pushing. Inadequate pelvis size (A) may necessitate a C-section, unsuccessful vacuum extraction (C) may require alternative interventions, and fetal distress in the first stage of labor (D) may not necessarily indicate the need for forceps delivery immediately.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because neglected obstructed labor and high parity are well-established predisposing factors to uterine rupture. Neglected obstructed labor can cause prolonged pressure on the uterus, leading to weakening and potential rupture. High parity (having given birth multiple times) can also increase the risk of uterine rupture due to repeated stretching and strain on the uterine muscles. A, B, and D are incorrect because nulliparity (never given birth), breech presentation, multiple pregnancy, and obstetric maneuvers are not as strongly associated with uterine rupture as neglected obstructed labor and high parity. These factors may increase the risk of other complications during childbirth but are not primary predisposing factors for uterine rupture.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D (42 completed weeks) because a full-term pregnancy is considered to be around 40 weeks. Post maturity refers to a pregnancy that has exceeded the normal 40-week gestation period. At 42 weeks, the risk of complications such as stillbirth or issues with the placenta increases. Choice A (40 completed weeks) is incorrect because this is considered a full-term pregnancy. Choices B (38 completed weeks) and C (41 completed weeks) are incorrect as they do not meet the criteria for post maturity.