ATI RN
ADPIE Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Clients with myastherda gravis, Guillain - Barre Syndrome or amyothrophic sclerosis experience:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased risk of respiratory complications. Clients with myasthenia gravis, Guillain-Barre Syndrome, or amyotrophic lateral sclerosis may experience respiratory muscle weakness, leading to difficulty breathing and an increased risk of respiratory complications such as pneumonia or respiratory failure. This is due to the involvement of the muscles responsible for breathing in these conditions. Progressive deterioration until death (A) is not always the case and varies depending on the condition and individual. Deficiencies of essential neurotransmitters (B) is not a common symptom in these conditions. Involuntary twitching of small muscle groups (D) is not a characteristic symptom of these neurological disorders.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient with a bowel resection. Which of the following would indicate that the patient’s gastrointestinal tract is resuming normal function?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Presence of flatus. This indicates normal gastrointestinal function post-bowel resection. Flatus production signifies peristalsis and passage of gas through the intestines, indicating that the bowels are working. A, firm abdomen, may indicate distention or ileus, not normal function. C, excessive thirst, is unrelated to bowel function. D, absent bowel sounds, may indicate ileus or bowel obstruction, not normal function.
Question 3 of 9
A patient’s chest x-ray examination indicates fluid in both lung bases. Which of the ff. signs or symptoms present during the nurse’s assessment most reflects these x-ray examination findings?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, bilateral crackles. Fluid in both lung bases on x-ray indicates pulmonary edema, causing crackles on auscultation. Fatigue (A) is a nonspecific symptom. Peripheral edema (B) is a sign of fluid retention in the extremities, not lungs. Jugular vein distention (D) indicates increased central venous pressure, which is not specific to lung fluid.
Question 4 of 9
A client who is scheduled for a parathyroidectomy is worried about having to wear a scarf around his neck after surgery. What nursing diagnosis should the nurse document in the care plan?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Disturbed body image related to the incision scar. This nursing diagnosis is appropriate as the client's concern about wearing a scarf post-surgery indicates a potential disturbance in body image due to the visible scar. The nurse should address the client's emotional response and offer support to help cope with the change in appearance. A: Risk for impaired physical mobility due to surgery - This choice is not directly related to the client's worry about wearing a scarf and focuses more on physical limitations post-surgery. B: Ineffective denial related to poor coping mechanisms - This choice does not address the specific body image concern expressed by the client. D: Risk of injury related to surgical outcomes - This choice does not address the client's emotional response to the scar and focuses on physical safety risks instead.
Question 5 of 9
The most likely cause of her chief complaint this morning is
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because polyuria is a common complication following hypophysectomy (removal of the pituitary gland). This procedure can disrupt the regulation of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to excessive urination. Choice A is incorrect as decreased stress would not cause polyuria. Choice B is unlikely as the onset of diabetes mellitus is not a typical immediate postoperative complication. Choice C is incorrect as removal of the pituitary gland would disrupt hormone regulation, possibly leading to polyuria, rather than being an expected result.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the ff nursing interventions is required when caring for a client after cardiac surgery who is at risk for ineffective tissue perfusion?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Position lower extremities below level of heart. This intervention helps improve blood flow and perfusion to the lower extremities by utilizing gravity to assist in venous return. This is crucial for clients at risk for ineffective tissue perfusion post-cardiac surgery. A: Restricting fluid intake may lead to dehydration, which can worsen tissue perfusion. B: Ensuring the client avoids prolonged sitting is important for preventing blood clots, but it does not directly address tissue perfusion. D: Instructing the client to avoid leg exercises may hinder circulation and exacerbate issues related to tissue perfusion.
Question 7 of 9
A 61-year old female patient with diabetes is in the emergency department after stepping on a sharp onject while walking barefoot on the beach. The patient did not notice that the object pierced the skin unitl later that evening. What problem does she probably have?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: neuropathy on her peripheral. In diabetes, peripheral neuropathy is common, causing loss of sensation in the feet, making it difficult to feel injuries like stepping on a sharp object. This can lead to delayed detection of wounds, increasing the risk of infections and complications. Nephropathy (B) refers to kidney damage, carpal tunnel syndrome (C) involves compression of the median nerve in the wrist, and macroangiopathy (D) refers to large blood vessel disease, which are not directly related to the scenario described.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is teaching a new nurse about protocols. Which information from the new nurse indicates a correct understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because protocols are indeed guidelines that assist clinicians in decision-making and choosing interventions for specific health care problems. This definition accurately reflects the purpose and function of protocols in nursing practice. Option B is incorrect as it describes protocols as policies related to nurses' duties and standards of care, which is more aligned with job descriptions and policies rather than protocols. Option C is incorrect as it relates protocols to a code of ethics, which is a separate concept that guides ethical decision-making and behavior in nursing practice. Option D is incorrect as it inaccurately describes protocols as prescriptive order forms, which are actually separate from protocols and are used for medication administration and treatment orders.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the ff symptoms should a nurse assess in a client when implementing interventions for trauma to the upper airway?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Presence of laryngospasm. Laryngospasm is a serious complication of trauma to the upper airway that can lead to airway obstruction. Assessing for laryngospasm is crucial to ensure the client's airway remains patent. Pain when talking (A) is more related to vocal cord injury, increased nasal swelling (B) is a symptom of nasal trauma, and burning in the throat (C) may indicate pharyngeal injury, but laryngospasm (D) directly affects airway patency in upper airway trauma cases.