ATI RN
Nursing Process Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Clients with myastherda gravis, Guillain - Barre Syndrome or amyothrophic sclerosis experience:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased risk of respiratory complications. Clients with myasthenia gravis, Guillain-Barre Syndrome, or amyotrophic lateral sclerosis all experience muscle weakness, including respiratory muscles, leading to a higher risk of respiratory complications such as difficulty breathing or respiratory failure. This is due to the involvement of the neuromuscular system in these conditions. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not directly correlate with the respiratory complications commonly seen in these specific neuromuscular disorders.
Question 2 of 9
After receiving a dose of penicillin, a client develops dyspnea and hypotension. The nurse suspects the client is experiencing anaphylactic shock. What should the nurse do first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Administering epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylactic shock to reverse hypotension and bronchoconstriction. Intubation may be necessary if airway compromise occurs despite epinephrine. Paging an anesthesiologist (A) is not the priority. Administering penicillin antidote (C) is not indicated in anaphylaxis. Inserting a urinary catheter and infusing IV fluids (D) may be necessary later but not the priority in managing anaphylactic shock.
Question 3 of 9
A patient is being taught the action of digoxin, which is an inotropic agent. The nurse defines an inotropic agent as a medication that has which of the following actions?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Strengthens heart contraction. Digoxin is an inotropic agent that works by increasing the force of the heart's contractions. This leads to improved cardiac output and helps manage conditions like heart failure. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because digoxin does not decrease heart rate, increase conduction time, or increase heart rate. It specifically targets the strength of the heart's contractions, making option D the most appropriate choice. This action of digoxin is crucial in improving the efficiency of the heart's pumping function.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse begins a shift assessment by examining a surgical dressing that is saturated with serosanguineous drainage on a patient who had open abdominal surgery yesterday (or 1 day ago). Which type of assessment approach is the nurse using?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: General to specific assessment. This type of assessment approach involves starting with a broad overview of the patient's condition and then narrowing down to specific details. In this scenario, the nurse begins by examining the surgical dressing, which is a specific aspect of the patient's condition, after which they can proceed to gather more detailed information about the drainage, wound healing, and any associated symptoms. This approach allows the nurse to systematically assess the patient's postoperative status and identify any potential issues. A: Gordon’s Functional Health Patterns is a comprehensive framework for organizing patient data, but it does not specifically address the sequence of assessment in this scenario. B: Activity-exercise pattern assessment focuses on the patient's activity level and exercise habits, which is not the primary concern in this situation. D: Problem-oriented assessment involves identifying and addressing specific health problems, but it does not capture the systematic progression from general to specific assessment as seen in this scenario.
Question 5 of 9
Why should the nurse closely monitor older adults when they are receiving IV therapy? Choose all that apply
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: The correct answer is not provided in the choices. However, if I were to choose from the given options, the most appropriate would be C: "Because they are prone to reduced renal efficiency." This is important because older adults may have decreased kidney function, leading to potential complications with IV therapy. Option A is incorrect as defense mechanisms are not directly related to monitoring IV therapy. Option B is incorrect as fluid overload is a general concern with IV therapy regardless of age. Option D is irrelevant to the need for monitoring IV therapy in older adults.
Question 6 of 9
One of the complications of prolonged bed rest is decubitus ulcer. Which of the following can best prevent its occurrence?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Turn frequently every 2 hours. This is because changing positions regularly helps to relieve pressure on specific areas, reducing the risk of developing decubitus ulcers. Turning every 2 hours helps to maintain blood flow and prevent tissue damage. A: Massaging reddened areas with lotion or oils can actually cause further damage by increasing friction and pressure on the skin. B: While using a special water mattress can help distribute pressure more evenly, it is not as effective as regular turning to prevent decubitus ulcers. D: Keeping the skin clean and dry is important for overall skin health but alone is not sufficient to prevent decubitus ulcers. Regular repositioning is crucial in reducing pressure and avoiding tissue breakdown.
Question 7 of 9
A client with vaginal cancer asks the nurse, “What is the usual treatment for this type of cancer?” Which treatment should the nurse name?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Surgery. Surgery is the primary treatment for vaginal cancer, especially for early-stage cases. It involves removing the cancerous tissue from the vagina. Radiation (B) and chemotherapy (C) may also be used in addition to surgery in some cases, but they are not the primary treatment. Immunotherapy (D) is not a standard treatment for vaginal cancer. It is important to prioritize surgery as it directly targets and removes the cancerous cells from the affected area, increasing the chances of successful treatment and recovery.
Question 8 of 9
The physician orders cystoscopy and random biopsies of the bladder for a client who reports painless hematuria. Test results reveal carcinoma in situ in several bladder regions. To treat bladder cancer, the client will have a series of intravesical instillations of bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG), administered 1 week apart. When teaching the client about BCG, the nurse should mention that this drug commonly causes:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hematuria. Bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG) is commonly used in the treatment of bladder cancer. It works by stimulating the immune system to attack and destroy cancer cells in the bladder. One of the common side effects of BCG instillations is hematuria, which is the presence of blood in the urine. This can occur due to irritation of the bladder lining by the BCG solution, leading to inflammation and bleeding. It is important for the nurse to educate the client about this potential side effect so they are aware of what to expect during treatment. A: Renal calculi - BCG therapy is not commonly associated with the formation of renal calculi. C: Delayed ejaculation - Delayed ejaculation is not a common side effect of BCG therapy. D: Impotence - Impotence is not a common side effect of BCG therapy.
Question 9 of 9
A registered nurse administers pain medication to a patient suffering from fractured ribs. Which type of nursing intervention is this nurse implementing?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dependent. In this scenario, the nurse is administering pain medication based on a healthcare provider's prescription, which demonstrates a dependent nursing intervention. The nurse is reliant on the provider's order to carry out this action. Collaborative interventions involve working with other healthcare professionals, independent interventions are actions that nurses can initiate without supervision, and interdependent interventions involve mutual goal-setting and decision-making among healthcare team members.