ATI RN
Nursing Process Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Clients with myastherda gravis, Guillain - Barre Syndrome or amyothrophic sclerosis experience:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased risk of respiratory complications. Clients with myasthenia gravis, Guillain-Barre Syndrome, or amyotrophic lateral sclerosis all experience muscle weakness, including respiratory muscles, leading to a higher risk of respiratory complications such as difficulty breathing or respiratory failure. This is due to the involvement of the neuromuscular system in these conditions. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not directly correlate with the respiratory complications commonly seen in these specific neuromuscular disorders.
Question 2 of 9
Before a cancer receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) resumes a normal diet, the nurse teaches him about dietary sources of minerals. Which foods are good sources of zinc?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Whole grains and meats. Zinc is mainly found in animal-based foods like meats and seafood. Meats, particularly red meats, are rich sources of zinc. Whole grains like wheat, rice, and oats also contain zinc. Legumes (Choice C) are sources of other minerals but not high in zinc. Fruits and vegetables (Choices A and B) are not significant sources of zinc. The correct answer provides the best options for the cancer patient to obtain an adequate amount of zinc for recovery.
Question 3 of 9
Which action by the nurse is appropriate?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because observing the patient for abnormal bleeding is an appropriate action to monitor for potential complications of warfarin therapy. This aligns with the nursing role in assessing and monitoring patient responses to treatment. B is incorrect as increasing warfarin dose without physician order can lead to adverse effects. C is incorrect as altering the dose without medical advice can be dangerous. D is incorrect as administering Vitamin K would counteract the effects of warfarin, which is used to prevent blood clotting.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following is a nurse patient care role in the preoperative phase?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Offering emotional support. In the preoperative phase, a nurse's role includes comforting and reassuring the patient to reduce anxiety and promote emotional well-being. This is crucial for the patient's overall experience and can positively impact their recovery. Obtaining preoperative orders (A) is typically the responsibility of the physician. Explaining the surgical procedure (C) is usually done by the surgeon. Providing informed consent (D) involves ensuring the patient understands the risks and benefits of the procedure, which is typically the responsibility of the healthcare provider performing the procedure.
Question 5 of 9
After receiving a dose of penicillin, a client develops dyspnea and hypotension. The nurse suspects the client is experiencing anaphylactic shock. What should the nurse do first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Administering epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylactic shock to reverse hypotension and bronchoconstriction. Intubation may be necessary if airway compromise occurs despite epinephrine. Paging an anesthesiologist (A) is not the priority. Administering penicillin antidote (C) is not indicated in anaphylaxis. Inserting a urinary catheter and infusing IV fluids (D) may be necessary later but not the priority in managing anaphylactic shock.
Question 6 of 9
. Which of the following instructions should be included in the teaching plan for a client requiring insulin?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Draw up clear insulin first when mixing two types of insulin in one syringe. This is important because mixing insulin requires drawing up the clear (short-acting) insulin first to prevent contamination. This ensures accurate dosing and prevents clouding of the insulin. Drawing up cloudy insulin first can lead to inaccurate dosing and potential mixing errors. Administering insulin after the first meal (choice A) is not the focus of this question. Administering insulin at a 45-degree angle into the deltoid muscle (choice B) is not recommended for insulin injections. Vigorously shaking the vial of insulin before withdrawal (choice C) can cause bubbles and affect the accuracy of the dose.
Question 7 of 9
What equipment should the nurse prepare for the primary care provider when a woman says she is concerned about possible Chlamydia infection?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Chlamydia collection kit. The primary care provider will need the collection kit to gather a sample for testing. A Chlamydia slide (A) is not necessary as the provider needs to collect a sample first. A Chlamydia swab (C) is used to collect the sample, not to provide to the provider. A Chlamydia wet mount (D) is not appropriate for Chlamydia testing, as it is typically used for other types of infections.
Question 8 of 9
A client is receiving methotrexate (Mexate), 12g/m2 IV to treat osteogenic carcinoma. During methotrexate therapy, the nurse expects the client to receive which other drug to protect normal cells?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Leucovorin. Leucovorin is administered with methotrexate to protect normal cells from methotrexate toxicity by acting as a "rescue" agent. Methotrexate inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, leading to decreased levels of tetrahydrofolate needed for DNA synthesis. Leucovorin bypasses this step by directly providing the reduced form of folic acid, thus preventing toxicity in normal cells. Probenecid (choice A) is not used to protect normal cells during methotrexate therapy. Cytarabine (choice B) and Thioguanine (choice C) are not rescue agents for methotrexate toxicity.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse performs an assessment on a patient. Which assessment data will the nurse use as an etiology for Acute pain?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Disruption of tissue integrity. Acute pain is typically caused by tissue damage or injury, such as a cut or a burn. The nurse would use this assessment data as an etiology for acute pain because it directly relates to the source of the pain. Discomfort while changing position (A) is a symptom of pain but does not provide the underlying cause. Reports pain as a 7 on a 0 to 10 scale (B) is a pain intensity rating and does not explain the cause of the pain. Dull headache (D) is a specific type of pain but is not relevant to the given scenario of tissue disruption.