ATI RN
Fundamentals of Nursing Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Clients who will go through operations and who have undergone surgery need the proper observation, treatment and care. Implementing the nursing process to these patients will help reduce complications. Nurse Maria checks on Mr. Alberto who had abdominal surgery, and finds that the edges of the incision have separated. Also, a small portion of the bowel is sticking out through the incision. Nurse Maria would:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A: Cover wound with moist sterile dressing Rationale: 1. Covering the wound with a moist sterile dressing helps maintain a clean and moist environment, promoting wound healing. 2. Moist dressing prevents the wound from drying out and minimizes the risk of infection. 3. The moist environment supports healing by promoting cell growth and preventing tissue damage. 4. It protects the exposed bowel from further injury and contamination. Summary: B: Finding out how this happened is important but not an immediate priority for patient care. C: Placing sterile dry gauze can lead to the wound drying out and hinder healing. D: Pouring sterile water into the wound is not recommended as it can introduce contaminants and is not considered standard care for this situation.
Question 2 of 9
Other signs of hypovolemia includes all of the following except:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because decreased pulse rate and widened pulse pressure are not signs of hypovolemia. In hypovolemia, the body tries to compensate by increasing the heart rate and narrowing the pulse pressure to maintain adequate blood flow. A is incorrect as dry mucous membranes and soft eyeballs are signs of dehydration. B is incorrect as increased hematocrit and hemoglobin are indicators of hemoconcentration in hypovolemia. D is incorrect as increased lethargy and confusion can be seen in severe hypovolemia due to poor perfusion of vital organs.
Question 3 of 9
A male client age 78, complaints of dizziness, especially when he stands up after sleeping or sitting. The client also informs the nurse that he periodically experiences nosebleeds and blurred vision. Which of the ff conditions should the nurse assess for the client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Postural hypotension. This condition is characterized by a drop in blood pressure upon standing, leading to dizziness. The client's symptoms of dizziness upon standing, along with nosebleeds and blurred vision, are indicative of low blood pressure. Postural hypertension (B) is not a recognized medical condition; White coat hypertension (C) refers to elevated blood pressure readings in a medical setting due to anxiety; White coat hypotension (D) is not a recognized medical condition.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse should plan to teach the client with pancytopenia caused by a chemotherapy to;
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B - Avoid traumatic injuries and exposure to any infection. For a client with pancytopenia caused by chemotherapy, their immune system is compromised, making them more susceptible to infections and bleeding. By avoiding traumatic injuries and exposure to infections, the client can reduce the risk of complications. Option A is incorrect because aggressive mouth care may further damage the already compromised oral mucosa. Option C is incorrect because excessive fluid intake may not be necessary and could worsen electrolyte imbalances. Option D is incorrect because muscle cramps and tingling sensations are not directly related to the main concern of infection and bleeding in pancytopenia.
Question 5 of 9
Which method of data collection will the nurse use to establish a patient’s database?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Performing a physical examination. This method allows the nurse to directly gather data from the patient's body, such as vital signs, appearance, and overall health status. It provides essential information to establish a patient's database, including baseline values and potential health issues. Reviewing current literature (A) helps in decision-making but does not directly establish a patient's database. Checking orders for tests (B) and ordering medications (D) are part of the treatment process and do not focus on gathering initial patient data.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is using assessment data gathered about a patient and combining critical thinking to develop a nursing diagnosis. What is the nurse doing?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Diagnostic reasoning. The nurse is utilizing assessment data to analyze and interpret the information to develop a nursing diagnosis. This involves critical thinking skills to make conclusions and create a plan of care. A: Assigning clinical cues - This choice is incorrect as it refers to identifying objective and subjective data during assessment, not the process of analyzing and synthesizing data to form a diagnosis. B: Defining characteristics - This choice is incorrect as it typically refers to the specific manifestations or symptoms associated with a particular nursing diagnosis, not the process of diagnosing itself. D: Diagnostic labeling - This choice is incorrect as it refers to the final step in the nursing diagnosis process where the nurse assigns a label to the identified problem, not the overall process of diagnostic reasoning.
Question 7 of 9
Emil, just had a thyroidectomy this morning. Upon awakening, he complains of circumoral tingling, has a positive Chvostek’s sign and positive Trousseau’s sign. Nurse Ofel assesses this to be an indication of:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is A, overstimulation of the parathyroid hormone. After a thyroidectomy, there is a risk of unintentional damage to the parathyroid glands, leading to hypoparathyroidism. Circumoral tingling, positive Chvostek’s sign, and positive Trousseau’s sign are classic signs of hypocalcemia resulting from parathyroid insufficiency. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not explain the specific symptoms observed in Emil, which are indicative of low calcium levels due to parathyroid dysfunction.
Question 8 of 9
An adult has and IV line in the right forearm infusing D5 ½ NS with 20 mEq of potassium at 75 ml/h. which statement would be a correct report from the RN?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C Rationale: 1. Potassium is typically administered on a secondary line to prevent rapid infusion and potential adverse effects. 2. The primary line carries the D5 ½ NS solution without potassium, while the secondary line delivers the potassium. 3. Reporting that "potassium is on the secondary line" accurately describes the setup for this IV infusion. Summary: A: Incorrect - Incorrectly states that the potassium bag is piggybacked into the dextrose. B: Incorrect - Closing the clamp below the D5 ½ NS bag is unnecessary and does not address the potassium infusion. D: Incorrect - Fails to address the specific issue of the potassium infusion being on a secondary line.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following IV solutions is hypertonic?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 5% dextrose in 0.9% NaCl. This solution is hypertonic because it has a higher osmolarity compared to the other choices. The presence of dextrose and NaCl in this solution increases its solute concentration, causing water to move out of the cells by osmosis. Normal saline (A) and 0.45% NaCl (B) are isotonic solutions, meaning they have the same osmolarity as body fluids. 0.225% NaCl (D) is a hypotonic solution with lower osmolarity than body fluids.