ATI RN
Genitourinary System Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
Clavulanic acid is combined with amoxicillin because:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because clavulanic acid is a beta-lactamase inhibitor that protects amoxicillin from being destroyed by beta-lactamases produced by certain bacteria. This allows amoxicillin to effectively kill the bacteria. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because clavulanic acid does not affect renal excretion, directly destroy bacteria, or counteract adverse effects of amoxicillin.
Question 2 of 5
Cloxacillin is indicated in infections caused by the following organism(s):
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cloxacillin is a beta-lactam antibiotic effective against Staphylococci. Staphylococci commonly cause skin and soft tissue infections. Streptococci are not typically treated with cloxacillin. Gonococci are not susceptible to cloxacillin. Therefore, the correct answer is A, as it is the only organism listed that is indicated for treatment with cloxacillin.
Question 3 of 5
A patient with HIV-AIDS being treated with combined antiviral drugs and immunosuppressive agents, develops an opportunistic infection caused by Pneumocystis carinii. Which of the following drugs most likely be used in the treatment of pulmonary infection caused by P. carinii?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Trimethoprim/Sulfamethoxazole. This combination is the first-line treatment for Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia in patients with HIV-AIDS due to its efficacy against the organism. Trimethoprim inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, while sulfamethoxazole inhibits dihydropteroate synthase, both essential enzymes for folate synthesis in bacteria and protozoa like P. carinii. Metronidazole (A) is used for anaerobic infections, Carbenicillin (B) is a penicillinase-resistant penicillin used for Gram-negative infections, and Penicillin G (D) is a narrow-spectrum antibiotic mainly used for Gram-positive infections.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following anti-HIV regimen that is generally reserved for advanced cases of AIDS or for repeated treatment failures?:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) + one protease inhibitor (PI). This regimen is typically reserved for advanced cases of AIDS or repeated treatment failures due to its high potency and effectiveness in suppressing HIV replication. NRTIs work by blocking the reverse transcriptase enzyme, while PIs inhibit the protease enzyme, both essential for HIV replication. Combining two NRTIs with a PI targets the virus at multiple stages, reducing the likelihood of resistance development. In contrast, the other choices (B, C, D) do not offer the same level of efficacy or resistance prevention as the combination in choice A. B: Three NRTIs may lead to increased toxicity without added benefit. C: Two NRTIs + one non-NRTI lacks the potency of a PI in advanced cases. D: One NRTI + one non-NRTI + one PI is not as effective as two NRTIs + one PI in suppressing
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following viruses is most susceptible to acyclovir?:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Acyclovir is an antiviral medication that specifically targets viruses that belong to the herpes virus family by inhibiting their replication. Herpes simplex Type 1 virus is most susceptible to acyclovir because it has a thymidine kinase enzyme that activates acyclovir into its active form, which then interferes with viral DNA synthesis. Herpes simplex Type 2 virus also has this enzyme, but it is not as effective against acyclovir compared to Type 1. Varicella-zoster virus and Epstein-Barr virus do not have the thymidine kinase enzyme necessary for acyclovir activation, making them less susceptible to the drug.