ATI RN
Midwifery Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Classical vitamin K deficiency bleeding occurs
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Classical vitamin K deficiency bleeding occurs within the neonatal stage because newborns have low levels of vitamin K, which is essential for blood clotting. This deficiency typically manifests between 1-7 days after birth. Bleeding within the first 24 hours (choice A) is unlikely as it is too early for vitamin K deficiency to cause symptoms. Bleeding within infancy (choice C) is incorrect as it specifically refers to the neonatal stage. Bleeding within the first week of birth (choice D) is a close distractor, but the critical period for classical vitamin K deficiency bleeding is within the neonatal stage, which is slightly more specific than the first week of birth.
Question 2 of 9
What are the complications associated with a high-risk pregnancy?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. High-risk pregnancies are associated with various complications, including preterm birth, gestational diabetes, and preeclampsia. Preterm birth can lead to developmental issues for the baby. Gestational diabetes affects the mother's and baby's health. Preeclampsia can result in high blood pressure and organ damage. Choosing D as the correct answer encompasses all these complications, highlighting the comprehensive nature of risks in high-risk pregnancies. Choices A, B, and C alone do not cover all the potential complications, making them individually incorrect.
Question 3 of 9
K. T. presents for a routine wellness examination, and the review of systems is significant only for a markedly decreased capacity for intake and a vague sense of nausea after eating. K. T. denies any other symptoms the remainder of the GI review of systems is negative. His medical history is significant for complicated peptic ulcer disease that finally required resection for a perforated ulcer. The AGACNP advises the patient that
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: His symptoms occur in 5 to 10% of people after ulcer surgery. This is the correct answer because the patient's symptoms of decreased capacity for intake and nausea after eating are common post-operative complications following ulcer surgery. By stating this fact to the patient, the AGACNP is providing reassurance that these symptoms are not unusual. Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect: A: Endoscopy is not necessary at this point since the symptoms described by the patient are known post-operative complications and do not indicate an urgent need for endoscopy. B: While gastroparesis can be a complication of ulcer surgery, there is no information in the case to suggest that the patient has chronic gastroparesis. C: Jumping to the conclusion that medication is unlikely to help and another surgery may be needed is premature and not supported by the information provided in the case.
Question 4 of 9
Flexion-distraction injuries of the thoracolumbar spine are most commonly caused by
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Seat belts. Flexion-distraction injuries of the thoracolumbar spine are commonly caused by seat belts due to the mechanism of injury during a motor vehicle accident. When a sudden deceleration occurs, the body is restrained by the seat belt while the spine continues to move forward, leading to hyperflexion of the spine. This results in distraction forces at the thoracolumbar junction, causing injury. Blunt trauma (choice A) can cause various types of spinal injuries but is not specifically associated with flexion-distraction injuries. Rotational injury (choice B) typically leads to injuries such as fractures or dislocations, not flexion-distraction injuries. Gunshot wounds (choice D) can cause direct spinal damage, but they do not typically result in flexion-distraction injuries.
Question 5 of 9
Inadequate levels of surfactant in a neonate leads to a condition referred to as
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Respiratory distress syndrome. Surfactant is essential for reducing surface tension in the alveoli, preventing their collapse. Inadequate levels of surfactant in a neonate result in respiratory distress syndrome. Meconium aspiration syndrome (A) is due to inhalation of meconium by the neonate. Intranatal pneumonia (B) is an infection acquired during birth. Congenital pneumothorax (D) is the presence of air in the pleural space, not directly related to surfactant levels.
Question 6 of 9
When examining a patient with abdominal pain, the AGACNP knows that tenderness to percussion is analogous to
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Rebound tenderness. Tenderness to percussion is similar to rebound tenderness because both involve assessing pain upon release of pressure. Rebound tenderness specifically evaluates pain when the examiner quickly removes pressure, indicating peritoneal inflammation. Tympany (A) refers to a drum-like sound upon percussion, not pain. Guarding (B) is involuntary muscle contractions in response to palpation, not percussion. Somatic pain (D) is localized pain arising from skin, muscles, or bones, not related to percussion tenderness.
Question 7 of 9
A major predisposing factor to cardiac disease in pregnancy includes
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rheumatic heart disease. This is because rheumatic heart disease is a known risk factor for cardiac complications during pregnancy due to the strain pregnancy places on the heart. Choice B, notable peripheral edema, is a symptom of heart failure but not a predisposing factor. Choice C, easy fatiguability, is a non-specific symptom and not a direct predisposing factor. Choice D, basal crepitation, is a sign of possible lung pathology and not directly related to cardiac disease in pregnancy. Therefore, the correct answer is A as it directly relates to an increased risk of cardiac issues during pregnancy.
Question 8 of 9
The Brain Trauma Foundation recommends intracranial pressure monitoring for all of the following patients except those with
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (GCS of 3 to 8 and hypotension) because hypotension is not a specific indication for intracranial pressure (ICP) monitoring according to the Brain Trauma Foundation guidelines. The rationale is that hypotension is a systemic issue affecting overall perfusion, whereas ICP monitoring is specifically for assessing intracranial dynamics. A, C, and D are incorrect choices because they all involve conditions that could potentially indicate increased intracranial pressure and the need for monitoring. A) Abnormal head CT indicates structural brain injury, C) age > 40 is a risk factor for poor outcomes after traumatic brain injury, and D) bradycardia can be a sign of increased ICP affecting brainstem function. Therefore, these conditions warrant ICP monitoring according to guidelines.
Question 9 of 9
Post maturity is a term that is used to describe a pregnancy that is equal to or more than
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D (42 completed weeks) because a full-term pregnancy is considered to be around 40 weeks. Post maturity refers to a pregnancy that has exceeded the normal 40-week gestation period. At 42 weeks, the risk of complications such as stillbirth or issues with the placenta increases. Choice A (40 completed weeks) is incorrect because this is considered a full-term pregnancy. Choices B (38 completed weeks) and C (41 completed weeks) are incorrect as they do not meet the criteria for post maturity.