ATI RN
Midwifery Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Classical vitamin K deficiency bleeding occurs
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Classical vitamin K deficiency bleeding occurs within the neonatal stage because newborns have low levels of vitamin K, which is essential for blood clotting. This deficiency typically manifests between 1-7 days after birth. Bleeding within the first 24 hours (choice A) is unlikely as it is too early for vitamin K deficiency to cause symptoms. Bleeding within infancy (choice C) is incorrect as it specifically refers to the neonatal stage. Bleeding within the first week of birth (choice D) is a close distractor, but the critical period for classical vitamin K deficiency bleeding is within the neonatal stage, which is slightly more specific than the first week of birth.
Question 2 of 5
K. T. presents for a routine wellness examination, and the review of systems is significant only for a markedly decreased capacity for intake and a vague sense of nausea after eating. K. T. denies any other symptoms the remainder of the GI review of systems is negative. His medical history is significant for complicated peptic ulcer disease that finally required resection for a perforated ulcer. The AGACNP advises the patient that
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: His symptoms occur in 5 to 10% of people after ulcer surgery. This is the correct answer because the patient's symptoms of decreased capacity for intake and nausea after eating are common post-operative complications following ulcer surgery. By stating this fact to the patient, the AGACNP is providing reassurance that these symptoms are not unusual. Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect: A: Endoscopy is not necessary at this point since the symptoms described by the patient are known post-operative complications and do not indicate an urgent need for endoscopy. B: While gastroparesis can be a complication of ulcer surgery, there is no information in the case to suggest that the patient has chronic gastroparesis. C: Jumping to the conclusion that medication is unlikely to help and another surgery may be needed is premature and not supported by the information provided in the case.
Question 3 of 5
Mr. Costigan is a 50-year-old male patient who recently had a screening colonoscopy because it was recommended by his primary care provider as a screening measure. He received a report that noted inflammatory polyps. He is concerned because one of his friends had polyps that turned into cancer. While advising Mr. Costigan, the AGACNP tells him that
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because inflammatory polyps are indeed considered precancerous, meaning they have the potential to develop into cancer over time. By having regular colonoscopies every 3 to 5 years, any new polyps can be detected early and removed before they have a chance to become malignant. This approach helps in preventing the progression of polyps to cancerous lesions, thus reducing the risk of developing colon cancer. Choice B is incorrect because while family history is a risk factor for colon cancer, the presence of inflammatory polyps in Mr. Costigan should not be overlooked or solely attributed to family history. Choice C is incorrect because all polyps have the potential to become cancerous, including inflammatory polyps. Ignoring their presence can lead to missed opportunities for early intervention. Choice D is incorrect because at this stage, the primary focus should be on surveillance and prevention through regular colonoscopies, rather than jumping into discussions about aggressive treatment options.
Question 4 of 5
The term used to describe a situation whereby the fetal lie keeps varying after 36 gestational weeks is
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Unstable lie. After 36 weeks of gestation, the fetal lie should typically be consistent. An unstable lie refers to a situation where the fetal lie keeps changing position, indicating a potential complication. This can lead to difficulties during labor and delivery. Summary: B: Compound lie - Refers to a situation where the fetus is in an abnormal position, such as breech or transverse, alongside another part of the body presenting first. C: Multiple lie - Not a recognized medical term. D: Transverse lie - Refers to a situation where the fetus is positioned horizontally across the uterus, which can complicate delivery.
Question 5 of 5
When a hand/foot lies alongside the presenting part, the presentation is said to be
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Footling. When a hand/foot lies alongside the presenting part, it indicates a footling presentation where the foot is presenting first. This is a type of breech presentation, where the baby's buttocks or feet come out first. A transverse presentation would mean the baby is lying sideways, and an unstable lie refers to the baby's position not being fixed. Therefore, the presence of a hand/foot alongside the presenting part specifically indicates a footling presentation, making choice A the correct answer.
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