ATI RN
Midwifery Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Classical vitamin K deficiency bleeding occurs
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Classical vitamin K deficiency bleeding occurs within the neonatal stage because newborns have low levels of vitamin K, which is essential for blood clotting. This deficiency typically manifests between 1-7 days after birth. Bleeding within the first 24 hours (choice A) is unlikely as it is too early for vitamin K deficiency to cause symptoms. Bleeding within infancy (choice C) is incorrect as it specifically refers to the neonatal stage. Bleeding within the first week of birth (choice D) is a close distractor, but the critical period for classical vitamin K deficiency bleeding is within the neonatal stage, which is slightly more specific than the first week of birth.
Question 2 of 9
A clinical feature that is suggestive of hypothermia neonatorum is
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bradycardia. Hypothermia neonatorum is characterized by low body temperature in newborns, which can lead to bradycardia as the heart rate decreases in response to the cold stress. Bradycardia is a common physiological response to hypothermia as the body tries to conserve energy and maintain vital functions. Hyperglycemia, hypoventilation, and hyperventilation are not specific clinical features of hypothermia neonatorum. Hyperglycemia is more commonly associated with conditions like diabetes, hypoventilation could be a sign of respiratory distress, and hyperventilation is usually seen in response to metabolic acidosis or anxiety.
Question 3 of 9
Sara S. is a 41-year-old patient who has just had a bone marrow transplant. The AGACNP knows that which medication will be used to decrease her risk of graft-versus-host reaction?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cyclosporine. Cyclosporine is an immunosuppressant medication commonly used post-bone marrow transplant to prevent graft-versus-host disease. It works by inhibiting T-cell activation and proliferation, reducing the risk of the donor's immune cells attacking the recipient's tissues. Immune globulin (A) is used for passive immunization, not prevention of graft-versus-host reaction. Prophylactic antibiotics (C) are used to prevent infections post-transplant, not graft-versus-host disease. Systemic corticosteroids (D) may be used to treat graft-versus-host disease but are not the first-line prophylactic medication.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following statements is true with respect to adrenal tumors that produce gender symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because virilizing adrenal tumors are more likely to be malignant in children. This is due to the fact that virilizing tumors can be associated with conditions like adrenocortical carcinoma, which is a malignant tumor. In contrast, feminizing adrenal tumors are not always carcinomas (choice A) and are not the most common type of adrenal tumor (choice B). Additionally, virilizing tumors in women can be localized to different parts of the adrenal gland, not just the cortex (choice C). Therefore, choice D is the most accurate statement among the options provided.
Question 5 of 9
Positive fasting blood sugar and oral glucose tolerance test, as well as being symptomatic, is diagnostic of
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Gestational diabetes mellitus. This condition is diagnosed when a pregnant woman exhibits symptoms of diabetes and has elevated fasting blood sugar and abnormal oral glucose tolerance test results. This specific combination of symptoms and test results during pregnancy points towards gestational diabetes mellitus. A: Potential diabetes mellitus - Incorrect. The symptoms combined with abnormal test results suggest an active condition, not potential. C: Clinical diabetes mellitus - Incorrect. While the symptoms and test results indicate diabetes, the context of pregnancy suggests gestational diabetes. D: Chemical diabetes mellitus - Incorrect. This term is not commonly used in medical practice and does not specifically address the condition in the given scenario.
Question 6 of 9
A student AGACNP just beginning his clinical rotation is observing his preceptor perform a physical survey on a patient who is brought in following a serious motor vehicle accident. The student observes that the physical examination includes rectovaginal examination, inspection of the urethral meatus, and palpation of the pelvic landmarks. The student knows the patient is being assessed for
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Retroperitoneal bleeding. The physical survey described focuses on assessing for internal bleeding within the retroperitoneal space following a serious motor vehicle accident. The rectovaginal examination, inspection of the urethral meatus, and palpation of pelvic landmarks help evaluate for signs of pelvic fracture and internal bleeding. These assessments help identify potential sources of retroperitoneal bleeding, which can be a life-threatening complication of trauma. Peritoneal bleeding (choice A) involves bleeding within the abdominal cavity, which is less likely in this scenario. Paresthesia (choice C) refers to abnormal sensations like tingling or numbness, which are not typically assessed through physical examination in this context. Pelvic fracture (choice D) is a possible outcome of trauma but does not directly assess for retroperitoneal bleeding.
Question 7 of 9
Breech presentation: a) What is meant by “breech presentation”?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Breech presentation refers to the bottom or feet-first position of the baby in the uterus. This is the correct answer (B) because it accurately defines breech presentation. Choice A (head-first presentation) is incorrect as it describes the typical vertex presentation. Choices C (oblique lie) and D (transverse lie) are also incorrect as they refer to other abnormal fetal positions that are different from breech presentation.
Question 8 of 9
An indication for forceps delivery is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Delay in second stage of labor. Forceps delivery is indicated when there is a delay in the second stage of labor to expedite delivery and prevent maternal and fetal complications. This could be due to factors such as maternal exhaustion, fetal distress, or ineffective pushing. Inadequate pelvis size (A) may necessitate a C-section, unsuccessful vacuum extraction (C) may require alternative interventions, and fetal distress in the first stage of labor (D) may not necessarily indicate the need for forceps delivery immediately.
Question 9 of 9
Surgical induction of labor refers to the use of
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sweeping of membranes and amniotomy. 1. Sweeping of membranes involves manually separating the amniotic sac from the lower part of the uterus, stimulating the release of prostaglandins to induce labor. 2. Amniotomy is the artificial rupture of membranes, which can accelerate labor by releasing amniotic fluid and initiating contractions. 3. These methods are commonly used for surgical induction of labor due to their effectiveness and minimal invasiveness compared to other options. Incorrect choices: A: Cytotec is a medication used for labor induction, but mechanical cervical dilatation is not a standard surgical method. C: Buscopan is used for relaxation of smooth muscle and not commonly used for labor induction. D: Syntocinon is a synthetic form of oxytocin used to induce or augment labor, but it is not typically used in surgical induction methods.