ATI RN
Human Reproductive System pdf NCERT Questions
Question 1 of 5
Chronic cervicitis is treated with
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the treatment of chronic cervicitis, antibiotics are the correct choice. Chronic cervicitis is commonly caused by bacterial infections, such as Chlamydia or Gonorrhea. Antibiotics are specifically designed to target and eliminate bacterial infections, making them the most effective treatment option in this case. Antifungals (option B) are used to treat fungal infections, not bacterial infections like cervicitis. Antivirals (option C) are used for viral infections, such as herpes or HPV, which are not the primary cause of chronic cervicitis. Anti-inflammatory drugs (option D) may help with symptoms like pain or swelling, but they do not address the underlying bacterial infection that antibiotics can treat. In an educational context, understanding the appropriate treatment for different types of infections is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially those working in fields like gynecology or reproductive health. By knowing the specific medications that target bacterial, fungal, or viral infections, healthcare providers can make informed decisions to effectively treat their patients and promote positive health outcomes.
Question 2 of 5
A client with the herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV-2) undergoes a viral shedding. Which of the following statements is true when caring for a client with HSV-2?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A) An outbreak of the HSV-2 infection is often self-limiting and hence treatment may be unnecessary. This is the right choice because HSV-2 outbreaks typically resolve on their own without specific medical intervention. Antiviral medications may be prescribed to alleviate symptoms or reduce the frequency of outbreaks, but they are not always necessary. This information is crucial for caregivers to understand so they can provide appropriate support and guidance to clients with HSV-2. Option B) Clients don't seek treatment because of embarrassment is incorrect. While stigma and embarrassment can be barriers to seeking treatment for HSV-2, it is not a universal truth. Many individuals do seek medical care for their symptoms and to manage their condition effectively. Option C) Healthcare providers and laboratories are not required by law to report is incorrect. In many jurisdictions, healthcare providers and laboratories are mandated to report cases of HSV-2 to public health authorities for surveillance and monitoring purposes. Option D) Reporting is up to the client, not the provider is also incorrect. Reporting of communicable diseases like HSV-2 is typically the responsibility of healthcare providers to ensure proper tracking, treatment, and prevention of spread within the community. Educationally, understanding the natural course of HSV-2 outbreaks and the role of healthcare providers in reporting and managing the condition is vital for healthcare professionals, as they play a key role in supporting clients with HSV-2 and preventing further transmission of the virus.
Question 3 of 5
The day after having a radical prostatectomy, your client has many blood clots in the urinary catheter and states he has frequent bladder spasms. You notice occasional urine leakage around the catheter at the urinary meatus. The client says that his right calf is sore and complains that he feels short of breath. Which action will you take first?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct action to take first is option D: Obtain an oxygen saturation using pulse oximetry. This is because the client is exhibiting signs of a potential pulmonary embolism, which is a serious complication post-radical prostatectomy due to the formation of blood clots. Checking oxygen saturation is crucial to assess for adequate oxygenation and to determine if the client's shortness of breath is due to a pulmonary issue. Option A, irrigating the catheter with saline, is not the priority as the client's symptoms suggest a more urgent systemic issue like a pulmonary embolism. Option B, administering oxybutynin, is used for managing overactive bladder symptoms and is not relevant to the client's current presentation. Option C, checking for Homans' sign, is used to assess for deep vein thrombosis in the lower extremities and may not be the most immediate concern in this case. Educationally, this scenario highlights the importance of recognizing and prioritizing emergent situations in post-operative care. Understanding the signs and symptoms of potential complications like pulmonary embolism is crucial for nurses to provide timely and appropriate interventions to ensure patient safety and well-being.
Question 4 of 5
An 86-year-old woman had an anterior and posterior colporrhaphy (A and P repair) several days ago. The client has been unwilling to ambulate or cough effectively. Her retention catheter was discontinued 8 hours ago. Which information obtained during your assessment has the most immediate implications for her care?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B) Abdomen is firm and tender to palpation above the symphysis pubis. This finding suggests a possible urinary retention or distended bladder, which could result from ineffective coughing and ambulation post-surgery. Prompt intervention is crucial to prevent complications like urinary retention, infection, or bladder injury. Option A) Oral temperature of 100.7°F may indicate a low-grade fever, but it is not as urgent as addressing a potentially distended bladder in this case. Option C) Decreased breath sounds with crackles suggest pulmonary issues, likely due to immobility, but addressing the bladder concern takes precedence. Option D) An apical pulse of 86 and slightly irregular may indicate cardiac irregularities, which are important but not as immediately critical as addressing the abdominal findings. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of recognizing postoperative complications, prioritizing assessments based on urgency, and intervening promptly to prevent further deterioration in patient condition. It emphasizes the need for healthcare providers to be vigilant in monitoring and addressing potential complications in the elderly population post-surgery.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse identifies a client with an abnormal lab test that screens for prostate cancer. What is the test that the client will receive to screen for prostate cancer?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is C) PSA (Prostate-Specific Antigen). PSA is a protein produced by the cells of the prostate gland and is commonly used as a screening test for prostate cancer. Elevated levels of PSA in the blood may indicate the presence of prostate cancer or other prostate-related issues. Option A) PAS, Option B) APS, and Option D) PCA are all incorrect choices for this question. PAS and APS are not relevant tests used for screening prostate cancer. PCA does not correspond to any standard test associated with prostate cancer screening. Educationally, understanding the significance of PSA testing in screening for prostate cancer is crucial for healthcare professionals like nurses. This knowledge allows them to efficiently identify potential health issues in patients, initiate appropriate follow-up actions, and provide necessary support and education to individuals undergoing such screenings. It also highlights the importance of regular health screenings for early detection and management of diseases like prostate cancer.