ATI RN
Reproductive System Anatomy Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
Chronic cervicitis is treated with
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: Chronic cervicitis, which is the inflammation of the cervix, is commonly caused by bacterial infections. Antibiotics are the appropriate treatment for this condition as they target and eliminate the bacteria responsible for the inflammation. Antibiotics such as doxycycline or azithromycin are often prescribed to treat chronic cervicitis effectively. Antifungals (Option B) are not the correct treatment for chronic cervicitis because fungal infections are not the primary cause of this condition. Antivirals (Option C) would not be effective either since chronic cervicitis is not typically caused by viruses. Anti-inflammatory drugs (Option D) may provide symptomatic relief but do not address the underlying bacterial infection causing chronic cervicitis. In an educational context, understanding the appropriate treatment for different medical conditions is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially those specializing in reproductive health. Knowing the right medication for specific conditions ensures proper patient care and management. Students should grasp the rationale behind treatment options to make informed clinical decisions and provide optimal care to patients with reproductive system disorders.
Question 2 of 5
A client with the herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV-2) undergoes a viral shedding. Which of the following statements is true when caring for a client with HSV-2?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is A) An outbreak of the HSV-2 infection is often self-limiting and hence a treatment may be unnecessary. This is because HSV-2 outbreaks typically resolve on their own without the need for medical intervention. Antiviral medications may be prescribed to help manage symptoms and reduce the frequency of outbreaks, but they are not always necessary. Option B is incorrect because clients with HSV-2 should not avoid seeking treatment due to embarrassment. It is important for individuals with HSV-2 to seek medical care for proper management and support. Option C is incorrect as healthcare providers and laboratories are required by law to report cases of HSV-2 to public health authorities to track and monitor the spread of the virus. Option D is incorrect because reporting of HSV-2 cases is mandated by healthcare providers to ensure proper management, treatment, and prevention strategies are implemented. Educationally, understanding how to care for clients with HSV-2 is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate support and guidance. Educating clients on the nature of the virus, treatment options, and prevention strategies is essential in promoting their overall health and well-being.
Question 3 of 5
A patient asks when she should make an appointment for her first Pap (Papanicolaou) test to screen for cervical cancer. What is the nurse’s most appropriate response?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The first Pap test should be done when a woman becomes sexually active or at age 21, whichever comes first. This is because cervical cancer is associated with the human papillomavirus (HPV), which is a sexually transmitted infection. Screening at this stage helps detect any abnormalities early on, increasing the chances of successful treatment. A: Incorrect. Waiting until after pregnancy is not recommended as early detection is crucial in preventing cervical cancer. B: Incorrect. The age of menarche is not a reliable indicator for when to start screening for cervical cancer. C: Incorrect. Waiting until 19 may miss early signs of cervical abnormalities that could lead to cancer. In summary, choice D is the most appropriate response as it aligns with current screening guidelines and focuses on early detection for optimal outcomes.
Question 4 of 5
During an internal examination of a patient’s anus, the nurse notes that the patient has a hypertonic sphincter. What is the most relevant action for the nurse to take at this time?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Hypertonic sphincter indicates increased muscle tone. 2. Inquiring about anxiety or pain helps assess the patient's comfort level. 3. Anxiety or pain can cause increased muscle tension. 4. Addressing emotional factors can help relax the sphincter for a more comfortable examination. Summary: - Option B focuses on neurologic causes, not immediate patient care. - Option C suggests referral without addressing patient comfort. - Option D addresses past trauma, not the current situation of hypertonic sphincter.
Question 5 of 5
In educating a male patient about testicular cancer, the nurse includes which statement?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: The correct answer is A because testicular cancer has the highest incidence in men between 20 and 34 years of age, making it crucial to educate this age group. Step 2: Choice B is incorrect as testicular cancer is not correlated with HPV; it is more associated with undescended testicles. Step 3: Choice C is incorrect as there is no direct link between the number of sexual partners and testicular cancer risk. Step 4: Choice D is incorrect as circumcision status is not a significant factor in the development of testicular cancer.