ATI RN
Central Nervous System Stimulants and Related Drugs NCLEX Questions Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
Chronic alcohol abuse increases acetaminophen hepatotoxicity because ethanol
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is D) Induces liver drug-metabolizing enzymes. Chronic alcohol abuse leads to the induction of liver enzymes, particularly cytochrome P450 enzymes, which are responsible for metabolizing drugs like acetaminophen. When these enzymes are induced, they increase the metabolism of acetaminophen into its toxic metabolite, N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine (NAPQI), leading to hepatotoxicity. Option A) Blocks acetaminophen metabolism is incorrect because chronic alcohol abuse does not block acetaminophen metabolism but rather enhances it through enzyme induction. Option B) Causes thiamine deficiency is incorrect as thiamine deficiency is associated with chronic alcohol abuse but is not directly related to increased acetaminophen hepatotoxicity. Option C) Displaces acetaminophen from plasma proteins is incorrect as chronic alcohol abuse does not displace acetaminophen from plasma proteins but affects its metabolism in the liver. Understanding the interaction between chronic alcohol abuse and drug metabolism is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially in scenarios where patients may present with acetaminophen overdose. This knowledge can guide appropriate treatment strategies and prevent further complications related to drug interactions.
Question 2 of 5
Which one of the following statements about the toxicity of local anesthetics is most correct?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer to the question is D) In overdosage, hyperventilation (with oxygen) is helpful to correct acidosis and lower extracellular potassium. This statement is correct because in cases of local anesthetic toxicity, respiratory depression can lead to acidosis and hyperkalemia. Hyperventilation with oxygen helps to correct acidosis by increasing the elimination of carbon dioxide and lowering extracellular potassium levels. Option A is incorrect because serious cardiovascular reactions are more likely to occur with bupivacaine, not tetracaine. Option B is incorrect because cyanosis is not a common symptom of lidocaine toxicity. Option C is incorrect because intravenous injection of local anesthetics can indeed lead to cardiac toxicity, but it typically causes arrhythmias rather than stimulating ectopic cardiac pacemaker activity. For educational context, it is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially those administering local anesthetics, to understand the signs, symptoms, and management of local anesthetic toxicity. Recognizing these symptoms early and knowing the appropriate interventions can be life-saving for patients. Educating healthcare providers about proper dosing, monitoring, and management of local anesthetic toxicity is essential for safe clinical practice.
Question 3 of 5
Which one of the following drugs given preoperatively will prevent postoperative pain caused by succinylcholine?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is D) Lidocaine. Lidocaine is a local anesthetic that works by blocking nerve signals in the body, thereby numbing the area where it is applied. When given preoperatively, lidocaine can help prevent postoperative pain caused by succinylcholine, which is a depolarizing muscle relaxant that can lead to muscle fasciculations and subsequent pain upon administration. Now, let's discuss why the other options are incorrect: A) Baclofen is a muscle relaxant and antispasmodic agent that works on the central nervous system to reduce muscle spasticity. However, it does not have a direct analgesic effect to prevent postoperative pain caused by succinylcholine. B) Dantrolene is a muscle relaxant that acts on the skeletal muscle directly to prevent or treat malignant hyperthermia, a rare but life-threatening reaction to certain drugs used during anesthesia. It does not have a direct role in preventing postoperative pain caused by succinylcholine. C) Diazepam is a benzodiazepine that is commonly used as an anxiolytic, sedative, and anticonvulsant. While it may help with preoperative anxiety and sedation, it does not target the mechanism of action of succinylcholine to prevent postoperative pain. Educational context: Understanding the pharmacological properties of different drugs is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially in the perioperative setting. Knowing which medications can be used to prevent or manage specific side effects or complications related to anesthesia administration is essential for providing safe and effective patient care. In this case, recognizing the role of lidocaine in preventing succinylcholine-induced postoperative pain highlights the importance of selecting the appropriate medications based on their mechanisms of action and intended outcomes.
Question 4 of 5
Concerning hypotheses for the pathophysiologic basis of schizophrenia, which one of the following statements is accurate?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In understanding the pathophysiology of schizophrenia, it is crucial to grasp the role of dopamine receptors. Option D, stating that all effective antipsychotic drugs have high affinity for dopamine D2 receptors, is accurate. Dopamine dysregulation is a fundamental aspect of schizophrenia, and drugs targeting D2 receptors are effective in managing symptoms. Option A is incorrect because PET scans actually show increased dopamine receptors in untreated schizophrenics. Option B is incorrect as drugs blocking dopamine receptors worsen psychotic symptoms in Parkinson's disease. Option C is incorrect as antipsychotic drug potency is not primarily related to beta adrenoceptor-blocking actions. In an educational context, understanding the neurobiological basis of schizophrenia and the pharmacological interventions targeting dopamine receptors is vital for healthcare professionals working with individuals with schizophrenia. This knowledge helps in selecting appropriate treatment options and managing symptoms effectively.
Question 5 of 5
Which one of the following drugs is most likely to be of value in obsessive-compulsive disorders (OCD)?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the context of treating obsessive-compulsive disorders (OCD), the correct answer is Clomipramine (option C). Clomipramine is a tricyclic antidepressant with potent serotonergic effects, making it particularly effective in managing OCD symptoms. This drug specifically targets the serotonin reuptake mechanism, which is believed to play a significant role in the pathophysiology of OCD. Amitriptyline (option A), Bupropion (option B), and Desipramine (option D) are not typically used as first-line treatments for OCD. Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant that primarily acts on norepinephrine and serotonin reuptake, but it is not as effective for OCD as Clomipramine. Bupropion is primarily a norepinephrine-dopamine reuptake inhibitor and is more commonly used for depression and smoking cessation. Desipramine is another tricyclic antidepressant that primarily affects norepinephrine levels and is not considered a first-line treatment for OCD. Educationally, understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for making appropriate treatment decisions in clinical practice. Knowing the specific indications and efficacy of each drug in treating different conditions helps healthcare professionals tailor treatment plans to individual patient needs. In the case of OCD, selecting the most suitable medication like Clomipramine can significantly improve patient outcomes and quality of life.