ATI RN
Cardiovascular Pharmacology Drug Class Questions
Question 1 of 5
Choose the drug which has a direct effect on platelet membrane to inhibit aggregation, release reaction and to improve platelet survival in extra-corporeal circulation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B) Ticlopidine. Ticlopidine is a thienopyridine antiplatelet agent that has a direct effect on the platelet membrane to inhibit aggregation, release reaction, and improve platelet survival in extra-corporeal circulation. Ticlopidine works by inhibiting the binding of adenosine diphosphate (ADP) to its platelet receptor, thereby preventing platelet activation and aggregation. This mechanism of action is distinct from the other options provided. A) Dipyridamole works by inhibiting platelet aggregation through a different mechanism involving adenosine uptake inhibition and phosphodiesterase inhibition. C) Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation by irreversibly inhibiting cyclooxygenase, thereby preventing the formation of thromboxane A2, a potent platelet aggregator. D) Sulfinpyrazone is a uricosuric agent that also has antiplatelet effects but works through a different mechanism compared to Ticlopidine. In an educational context, understanding the mechanisms of action of different cardiovascular pharmacology drug classes is essential for healthcare professionals to make informed clinical decisions when managing patients with cardiovascular conditions. Knowing the specific effects of each drug on platelet function helps in tailoring treatment regimens to achieve optimal outcomes while minimizing adverse effects.
Question 2 of 5
The client has paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia. What are some causes of this?select one that does not apply
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT) is a condition characterized by sudden episodes of rapid heart rate originating above the ventricles. In this case, the correct answer is D) Hypertension. Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is not a common cause of PSVT. Instead, PSVT is often triggered by factors like stress (option A), digitalis toxicity (option B), and stimulants (option C) such as caffeine or certain medications. Educational Context: Understanding the causes of PSVT is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially those in cardiovascular pharmacology. By knowing the triggers for PSVT, healthcare providers can better manage and treat patients with this condition. Identifying and addressing underlying causes like stress, medications, or stimulants can help in preventing future episodes of PSVT and improving patient outcomes. In this scenario, it is important to differentiate between common triggers like stress, digitalis toxicity, and stimulants, and less likely causes such as hypertension. This distinction allows healthcare providers to focus on appropriate interventions and provide optimal care for patients with PSVT.
Question 3 of 5
A 73-year-old woman with known angina has an attack of mild chest pressure and spasm while shopping at the mall. She takes a sublingual nitroglycerin tablet and within a few minutes has improvement in her symptoms. Which of the following is the most likely explanation of action of this agent?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C) Decreased myocardial oxygen consumption. Explanation: Nitroglycerin, a vasodilator, works by dilating veins which leads to decreased preload on the heart. This reduces myocardial oxygen demand by decreasing the workload on the heart. By decreasing the oxygen demand of the heart muscle, nitroglycerin helps alleviate symptoms of angina, such as chest pressure and spasm. Why others are wrong: A) Decreased myocardial perfusion: This is incorrect because nitroglycerin actually increases myocardial perfusion by dilating coronary arteries, improving blood flow to the heart muscle. B) Decreased preventricular contractions: This is not the mechanism of action of nitroglycerin in treating angina. D) Increasing pulmonary arterial blood flow: Nitroglycerin primarily affects the coronary arteries and systemic veins, not pulmonary arteries. Educational context: Understanding the mechanism of action of cardiovascular pharmacology drugs is crucial for healthcare professionals managing patients with cardiovascular conditions like angina. Knowing how nitroglycerin works can help in making informed decisions regarding its use in acute situations like angina attacks. This knowledge is essential for providing safe and effective patient care in cardiovascular emergencies.
Question 4 of 5
A 32-year-old Caucasian woman experiences chest pain with exertion. She reports having similar episodes in the past. It is determined that she is experiencing stable angina. She is given nitroglycerin to relax her vascular smooth musculature. Which best describes a step on nitroglycerin's mechanism of action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator commonly used to relieve chest pain in conditions like angina. The correct answer is B) Activation of guanylate cyclase. Nitroglycerin is a prodrug that gets converted to nitric oxide (NO) in the body. Nitric oxide activates guanylate cyclase, leading to an increase in cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP) levels. This cGMP then causes relaxation of vascular smooth muscle, resulting in vasodilation and decreased cardiac workload. Option A) Activation of adenylate cyclase is incorrect because nitroglycerin does not act through the adenylate cyclase pathway. Option C) Inhibition of calcium channels is incorrect because nitroglycerin's mechanism does not involve direct inhibition of calcium channels. Option D) Inhibition of cGMP phosphodiesterase is incorrect because nitroglycerin actually increases cGMP levels by activating guanylate cyclase rather than inhibiting its breakdown by phosphodiesterase. Understanding the mechanism of action of nitroglycerin is crucial in cardiovascular pharmacology as it helps in comprehending how the drug works to alleviate symptoms of angina and its potential side effects. This knowledge is essential for healthcare professionals to make informed decisions when managing patients with cardiovascular conditions.
Question 5 of 5
Irbesartan (an angiotensin-II receptor antagonist) is contraindicated in:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In understanding why Irbesartan is contraindicated in bilateral renal artery stenosis, it's crucial to grasp its mechanism of action. Irbesartan, as an angiotensin-II receptor antagonist, works by blocking the action of angiotensin II, which results in vasodilation and decreased secretion of aldosterone. In bilateral renal artery stenosis, there is already reduced blood flow to both kidneys. By further inhibiting the vasoconstrictive effects of angiotensin II, drugs like Irbesartan can potentially precipitate acute renal failure due to further decreasing renal perfusion. Now, let's assess the other options: A) Left ventricular failure: Angiotensin-II receptor antagonists like Irbesartan are actually indicated in left ventricular failure as they help reduce afterload and preload, thus improving cardiac function. B) Asthma: Irbesartan does not have a direct contraindication in asthma. It is generally well-tolerated in patients with asthma. D) Diabetic nephropathy: Irbesartan is actually indicated in diabetic nephropathy due to its renal protective effects in diabetic patients. Educational context: Understanding the contraindications of cardiovascular pharmacology drugs is essential for safe and effective patient care. It is crucial for healthcare professionals to be aware of drug mechanisms, contraindications, and potential adverse effects to make informed decisions in clinical practice. This knowledge ensures that medications are prescribed appropriately, minimizing risks and optimizing patient outcomes.