Children with ALL who carry poor outcome include all the following EXCEPT

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ATI Nursing Proctored Pediatric Test Banks Questions

Question 1 of 5

Children with ALL who carry poor outcome include all the following EXCEPT

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In the context of pediatric oncology, Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL) is a common malignancy. Understanding the factors that influence outcomes in children with ALL is crucial for nurses caring for these patients. Option C, hyperdiploidy chromosomal abnormality, is the correct answer. This abnormality is associated with a favorable prognosis in children with ALL, contrary to the other options. Option A suggests that age younger than 1 year and older than 10 years is associated with a poor outcome in ALL. Younger age is actually a favorable prognostic factor in pediatric ALL. Option B, T-cell immunophenotype, is often associated with a poorer prognosis compared to B-cell ALL. Option D, an initial leukocyte count of >50,000, is considered a high-risk feature in ALL and is associated with a poorer prognosis. Educationally, understanding prognostic factors in pediatric ALL is essential for nurses to provide comprehensive care, anticipate complications, and support families. By knowing which factors indicate a poor outcome, nurses can intervene promptly and advocate for appropriate treatment strategies.

Question 2 of 5

Radiotherapy is an effective modality of treatment in variable pediatric solid tumors. Of the following, the LEAST responsive tumor to radiotherapy is

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In pediatric oncology, understanding the responsiveness of different solid tumors to radiotherapy is crucial for determining effective treatment strategies. In this scenario, the correct answer is D) osteosarcoma. Osteosarcoma is the least responsive tumor to radiotherapy among the options provided. Osteosarcoma is a type of bone cancer that is relatively radioresistant, meaning it does not respond as well to radiotherapy compared to other pediatric solid tumors. This is due to the dense and mineralized nature of bone tissue, which can limit the effectiveness of radiation in targeting and destroying cancer cells within the bone. On the other hand, options A, B, and C (rhabdomyosarcoma, neuroblastoma, and nephroblastoma) are more responsive to radiotherapy than osteosarcoma. Rhabdomyosarcoma is a soft tissue tumor that typically responds well to radiotherapy. Neuroblastoma and nephroblastoma (Wilms tumor) are also known to be sensitive to radiation therapy, with high rates of response and successful outcomes when treated with this modality. For nursing students preparing for the ATI Nursing Proctored Pediatric Test, understanding the varying responses of pediatric solid tumors to different treatment modalities, including radiotherapy, is essential. This knowledge informs clinical decision-making and helps ensure appropriate and effective care for pediatric oncology patients.

Question 3 of 5

Which blood gas analyses are most indicative of respiratory acidosis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is option A) pH = 7.22, PCO2 = 55 mmHg, HCO3 = 30 mEq/L. This blood gas analysis is most indicative of respiratory acidosis. Respiratory acidosis is characterized by low pH (acidosis) and high PCO2. In this option, the pH is below the normal range (7.35-7.45) indicating acidosis, and the PCO2 is elevated (normal range 35-45 mmHg) which is consistent with respiratory acidosis. Additionally, the HCO3 level is elevated, compensating for the primary respiratory acidosis. Option B has a pH within the normal range and a low PCO2 and HCO3, which are not indicative of respiratory acidosis. Option C has normal pH, PCO2, and HCO3 levels, ruling out respiratory acidosis. Option D has a normal pH, low PCO2, and normal HCO3, which does not align with respiratory acidosis. In an educational context, understanding blood gas analysis is crucial for nurses to assess a patient's acid-base balance and respiratory status. Recognizing patterns like respiratory acidosis helps in prompt intervention and providing appropriate care to pediatric patients with respiratory issues.

Question 4 of 5

In embryonic period, formation of all of the following occur by the given time EXCEPT

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D) 10 weeks - endoderm formation, which does not occur during the embryonic period by that time. The embryonic period spans from weeks 3 to 8 of gestation and is characterized by rapid and crucial development of the major organ systems. By week 8, the embryo has developed the three primary germ layers: ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm. Option A) 8 days - blastocyst formation is correct as it occurs during the early stages of embryonic development. Option B) 6 weeks - ectoderm formation is also correct as the ectoderm is one of the first germ layers to form. Option C) 8 weeks - crown-rump length about 3 cm is correct as this growth milestone typically occurs around that time in the embryonic period. Understanding the timeline of embryonic development is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially nurses working in pediatric care. It helps in assessing the growth and development of the fetus, identifying any potential abnormalities, and providing appropriate care and support to pregnant women and their unborn babies.

Question 5 of 5

The MOST appropriate age of a child who helps to undress; puts 3 words together (subject, verb, object); and handles spoon well is

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C) 24 months. At 24 months, a child is typically around 2 years old, which corresponds to the developmental milestones described in the question. Children at this age are usually able to help undress themselves, put 3 words together (subject, verb, object), and handle a spoon well. Option A) 15 months is too young for a child to be consistently performing all the described tasks. At 15 months, most children are still developing these skills and may not have mastered them yet. Option B) 18 months is also too early for most children to be consistently achieving all the milestones listed. While some children may start to show some of these abilities at 18 months, it is not as common as at 24 months. Option D) 30 months is too old for these particular milestones. By 30 months, most children should have already acquired these skills, so it would be considered a developmental delay if a child at this age was unable to perform these tasks. Understanding developmental milestones in children is crucial for healthcare providers, especially in pediatric nursing. By recognizing what is considered typical development at different ages, nurses can assess and support children's growth and development effectively. This knowledge helps in identifying potential delays or issues that may require further evaluation or intervention.

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