Charles is started on chemotherapy, which is aimed at restoring dopaminergic activities. An example of such a drug is:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dopar. Dopar is a drug that increases dopamine levels by converting into dopamine in the brain. This directly restores dopaminergic activities. Artane (A) is an anticholinergic used for Parkinson's symptoms, Elavil (B) is a tricyclic antidepressant, and Benadryl (C) is an antihistamine, none of which directly target dopaminergic activities like Dopar does.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Levodopa. Levodopa is associated with the on-off phenomenon and wearing-off effect in Parkinson's disease treatment due to fluctuations in its effectiveness over time. The on-off phenomenon refers to sudden and unpredictable changes in motor function, while wearing-off effect occurs when the medication's effects diminish before the next dose. Amantadine (A) is not typically associated with these phenomena. Benztropine (C) is an anticholinergic used for tremors and rigidity. Pramixole (D) is a dopamine agonist that can cause dyskinesias but is not primarily linked to on-off or wearing-off effects.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Menstrual irregularities. After a unilateral adrenalectomy, the remaining adrenal gland may be affected by spironolactone, leading to hormonal imbalances and menstrual irregularities. This drug is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can interfere with the production of aldosterone, affecting hormonal regulation. Breast tenderness (A) is not a common side effect of spironolactone. Increased facial hair (B) is associated with hirsutism, not typically seen with spironolactone. Hair loss (D) is more commonly associated with other medications like chemotherapy, not spironolactone.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Pulmonary edema is caused by increased hydrostatic pressure in the pulmonary circulation. 2. Elevated left ventricular end-diastolic pressure signifies heart failure, a common cause of pulmonary edema. 3. A rise in pulmonary venous pressure is a consequence of increased hydrostatic pressure. Therefore, all three alterations (A, B, D) are characteristic of pulmonary edema. Option C is correct. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they are all individually associated with pulmonary edema and collectively represent the condition.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Urinary output of 30 ml in an hour. Adequate tissue perfusion is best indicated by a sufficient urinary output, as it demonstrates proper kidney perfusion and function. A low urinary output may suggest inadequate perfusion. Explanation for other choices: B: Central venous pressure reading of 2 cm H20 is not a reliable indicator of tissue perfusion to vital organs. C: Pulse rates alone are not enough to indicate tissue perfusion as they can be influenced by various factors. D: Blood pressure readings alone may not accurately reflect tissue perfusion, especially in the context of fluid replacement therapy.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because post-kidney transplant patients are at high risk for fluid and electrolyte imbalances due to the impact of the surgery on renal function. The nurse should assess for signs of fluid overload or depletion and monitor electrolyte levels closely. Choice B, hepatotoxicity, is less immediate and not directly related to kidney transplant. Choice C, infection, is important but not the immediate priority. Choice D, respiratory complications, are also significant but not the most immediate concern post-kidney transplant.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Allowing the client to grasp the nurse's hand firmly assesses grip strength and motor coordination. 2. This step helps evaluate the client's ability to follow instructions and perform a coordinated motor task accurately. 3. Assessing grip strength is essential in determining any muscle weakness or neurological deficits. 4. It also provides insight into the client's motor function and coordination abilities. Summary: - Choice B is incorrect because it focuses on sensory functions rather than motor functions. - Choice C assesses fine motor skills, not grip strength and coordination. - Choice D evaluates cognition and logic, which are not directly related to motor function assessment.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: - Salt tablets are used for mild deficits of serum sodium to help restore electrolyte balance. - Sodium is crucial for fluid balance, nerve function, and muscle contraction. - Severe deficits of serum magnesium, potassium, and calcium require specific electrolyte replacement therapy, not salt tablets. Summary: - Choice A is correct because salt tablets are used for mild deficits of serum sodium. - Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they involve severe deficits of different electrolytes that require specific replacement therapy.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because it demonstrates data validation in making a nursing clinical decision. The nurse assesses the time of the last dressing change and compares it with the appearance of old and new drainage. This process ensures that the decision to remove the wound dressing is based on accurate and validated data, leading to appropriate patient care. Choice B is incorrect because it does not involve data validation. The decision is driven by increased pain and family requests, without verifying the underlying cause. Choice C is incorrect as it involves responding to a patient's reported symptom (leg cramps), but it does not involve data validation in making the clinical decision. Choice D is incorrect as it relies solely on the patient's report of decreased mobility without further data validation.