ATI RN
Test Bank Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Questions
Question 1 of 9
Charles is started on chemotherapy, which is aimed at restoring dopaminergic activities. An example of such a drug is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dopar. Dopar is a drug that increases dopamine levels by converting into dopamine in the brain. This directly restores dopaminergic activities. Artane (A) is an anticholinergic used for Parkinson's symptoms, Elavil (B) is a tricyclic antidepressant, and Benadryl (C) is an antihistamine, none of which directly target dopaminergic activities like Dopar does.
Question 2 of 9
To provide safe care for Mrs. Zeno, it is important for the nurse to check the bedside for the presence of:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: An intravenous set-up. Checking for an intravenous set-up is crucial to ensure that Mrs. Zeno is receiving necessary medications or fluids. It allows the nurse to monitor the infusion rate, prevent potential complications like infiltration, and ensure proper medication administration. A tracheostomy set (A) may be important for respiratory support but not essential for immediate safety. A hypothermia blanket (B) is used for temperature management and not directly related to Mrs. Zeno's immediate safety. A syringe and edrophonium HCl (D) are specific to a diagnostic test for myasthenia gravis and not necessary for general bedside safety assessment.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the ff actions should the nurse perform to monitor for electrolyte imbalances and dehydration in a client with a neurologic deficit?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Measure intake and output. Monitoring intake and output is crucial in assessing electrolyte imbalances and dehydration in clients with neurologic deficits. Electrolyte imbalances can lead to neurological complications, so accurate monitoring is essential. Mini-mental status and Glasgow Coma scale are assessments of mental status, not electrolyte balance. Vital signs can provide some information, but intake and output measurement is more specific for assessing electrolyte imbalances and dehydration.
Question 4 of 9
At 1400, the nurse notices that the dressing is saturated and leaking. What is the nurse’s next action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a saturated and leaking dressing indicates a potential infection risk and compromised wound healing. The nurse should revise the plan of care and change the dressing immediately to prevent complications. Waiting until 1800 (choice A) could lead to further contamination and delay in treatment. Reassessing in 2 hours (choice C) might worsen the condition. Discontinuing the plan of care (choice D) is not appropriate without addressing the immediate issue.
Question 5 of 9
A patient tells his nurse that he has delayed having TURP because he is afraid it will affect his sexual function. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: “This type of surgery rarely affects the ability to have an erection or ejaculation.” This response is appropriate because it provides accurate information that addresses the patient's concern about sexual function without making any false claims. TURP (Transurethral Resection of the Prostate) typically does not impact a patient's ability to have an erection or ejaculate. This reassurance can help alleviate the patient's fears and provide him with accurate information to make an informed decision. Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect: A: “Don’t worry about sterility; sperm production is not affected by this surgery.” - This is incorrect as the concern is more about sexual function than sterility. B: “Would you like some information about implants used for impotence?” - This is incorrect as it jumps to a solution without addressing the patient's specific concern about TURP affecting sexual function. D: “There are many methods of sexual expression that are alternatives to sexual intercourse
Question 6 of 9
A client with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP), an autoimmune disorder, is admitted to an acute care facility. Concerned about hemorrhage, the nurse monitors the client’s platelet count and observes closely for signs and symptoms of bleeding. The client is at greatest risk for cerebral hemorrhage when the platelet count falls below:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 20,000/ul. A platelet count below 20,000/ul puts the client at the highest risk for cerebral hemorrhage due to severe thrombocytopenia. Platelets are essential for blood clotting, and a low count increases the risk of spontaneous bleeding, especially in critical organs like the brain. Choices A, C, and D have platelet counts that are higher than the critical level of 20,000/ul, so they do not pose as high a risk for cerebral hemorrhage. Option D, 500/ul, is extremely low and would likely lead to severe bleeding, but the critical threshold for cerebral hemorrhage is considered to be around 20,000/ul.
Question 7 of 9
A client with rheumatoid arthritis is about to begin aspirin therapy to reduce inflammation. When teaching the client about aspirin, the nurse discusses adverse reactions to prolonged aspirin therapy. These include:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Respiratory acidosis. Aspirin can lead to respiratory acidosis due to its effect on the respiratory center in the brainstem. It causes hyperventilation, leading to respiratory alkalosis initially, followed by respiratory acidosis as compensation mechanism fails. Weight gain is not a typical adverse reaction of aspirin. Fine motor tremors are not associated with aspirin therapy. Bilateral hearing loss is a rare but serious side effect of aspirin overdose, not prolonged therapy.
Question 8 of 9
A patient has a bacterial infection in left lower leg. Which nursing diagnosis will the nurse add to the patient’s care plan?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct nursing diagnosis is C: Impaired skin integrity. This choice is correct because it directly addresses the bacterial infection in the left lower leg by focusing on the skin's condition. The patient's skin integrity is compromised due to the infection, making this nursing diagnosis appropriate. Choice A (Infection) is too broad and does not specify the impact on the skin. Choice B (Risk for infection) is incorrect because the patient already has a bacterial infection, so the risk has already manifested. Choice D (Staphylococcal leg infection) is too specific and does not address the broader issue of skin integrity. Therefore, the best choice is C as it accurately reflects the patient's current condition and guides appropriate nursing interventions to address the impaired skin integrity caused by the bacterial infection.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse is developing a care plan. Which intervention is most appropriate for the nursing diagnostic statement Risk for loneliness related to impaired verbal communication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Provide the patient with a writing board each shift. This intervention addresses the impaired verbal communication by offering an alternative way for the patient to communicate. Writing board enables the patient to express thoughts and feelings, reducing the risk of loneliness. Choice B doesn't directly address the communication issue. Choice C is not relevant to the nursing diagnosis. Choice D, while promoting companionship, doesn't address the specific communication concern stated in the diagnosis.