Characteristics of nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockade include which one of the following?

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CNS Drugs Pharmacology PDF Questions

Question 1 of 5

Characteristics of nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockade include which one of the following?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C) Poorly sustained titanic tension. Nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockers work by competitively antagonizing the action of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction, leading to muscle relaxation. The characteristic of poorly sustained titanic tension refers to the inability of the muscle to maintain a sustained contraction when stimulated repetitively. This is a key feature of nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockade. Option A, block of posttetanic potentiation, is incorrect because nondepolarizing blockers do not affect posttetanic potentiation, which is the temporary increase in muscle response seen after a high-frequency stimulation. Option B, histamine blocking action, is incorrect because nondepolarizing blockers do not have significant histamine-releasing properties. Histamine release is more commonly associated with certain anesthetic drugs like opioids. Option D, significant muscle fasciculations during onset of block, is incorrect because nondepolarizing blockers typically do not cause muscle fasciculations during onset. Fasciculations are more commonly seen with depolarizing neuromuscular blockers like succinylcholine. Understanding the characteristics of different types of neuromuscular blockers is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially anesthesiologists and critical care providers, to safely and effectively manage neuromuscular blockade during surgeries or in the intensive care unit. Knowledge of these drugs helps in selecting the appropriate agent, monitoring the depth of neuromuscular blockade, and managing complications related to muscle relaxation.

Question 2 of 5

Following is the main inhibitory transmitter in the brain

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In the context of CNS drugs pharmacology, the main inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain is GABA (Gamma-aminobutyric acid). GABA functions to decrease the excitability of neurons, thereby exerting inhibitory effects on the central nervous system. This is crucial for maintaining the balance between excitatory and inhibitory signals in the brain. A) Dopamine is a neurotransmitter involved in reward and pleasure pathways, as well as motor control. It is not the main inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain. B) Norepinephrine is a neurotransmitter that plays a role in the body's response to stress. It is involved in the "fight or flight" response and in regulating alertness. Norepinephrine is not the main inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain. C) Glycine is an inhibitory neurotransmitter primarily found in the spinal cord and lower brainstem. It is involved in regulating motor and sensory functions. While important for inhibitory signaling, glycine is not the main inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain. Understanding the main inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain is essential for pharmacology students as many drugs target the GABAergic system to modulate neuronal activity. Knowing the roles of other neurotransmitters helps students appreciate the complexity of neurotransmission and the specific functions of each neurotransmitter in the brain.

Question 3 of 5

Which one of the following drugs is most likely to increase plasma levels of alprazolam, theophylline, and warfarin?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is B) Fluvoxamine. Fluvoxamine is a potent inhibitor of the cytochrome P450 enzyme CYP1A2, which is responsible for the metabolism of alprazolam, theophylline, and warfarin. By inhibiting this enzyme, fluvoxamine can increase the plasma levels of these drugs, leading to potential drug interactions and toxicity. Desipramine (option A) and Imipramine (option C) are tricyclic antidepressants that do not have a significant effect on the metabolism of alprazolam, theophylline, or warfarin, making them less likely to increase their plasma levels. Nefazodone (option D) is a serotonin modulator and stimulator that does not have a significant effect on CYP1A2 metabolism, so it is also less likely to increase the plasma levels of alprazolam, theophylline, or warfarin. Understanding drug interactions and how different medications can affect the metabolism of others is crucial in pharmacology to prevent adverse effects and ensure the safe and effective use of medications in clinical practice. Fluvoxamine's potent inhibition of CYP1A2 underscores the importance of considering potential drug interactions when prescribing medications to patients taking alprazolam, theophylline, or warfarin.

Question 4 of 5

A patient suffering from a depressive disorder is being treated with imipramine. If he uses diphenhydramine for allergic rhinitis, a drug interaction is likely to occur because

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D) Both drugs block muscarinic receptors. Imipramine is a tricyclic antidepressant that blocks the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin. Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine that also has anticholinergic effects by blocking muscarinic receptors. When used together, the combination of imipramine and diphenhydramine can lead to additive anticholinergic effects due to their combined action on muscarinic receptors. Option A is incorrect because diphenhydramine does not inhibit imipramine metabolism; instead, they may have additive effects due to their overlapping pharmacological actions. Option B is incorrect because while both drugs affect neurotransmitters, they do so through different mechanisms - imipramine primarily affects norepinephrine and serotonin reuptake, while diphenhydramine primarily blocks histamine receptors. Option C is incorrect as imipramine does not inhibit the metabolism of diphenhydramine. This question highlights the importance of understanding drug interactions, especially when combining medications with overlapping or opposing mechanisms of action. Healthcare providers need to be aware of potential interactions to prevent adverse effects and optimize patient care.

Question 5 of 5

This agent is currently a first-choice drug in the management of absence seizures as well as partial, primary generalized, and tonic-clonic seizures.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A) Valproic acid. Valproic acid is a broad-spectrum antiepileptic drug that is considered a first-line treatment for various types of seizures, including absence seizures, partial seizures, primary generalized seizures, and tonic-clonic seizures. Valproic acid works by increasing the levels of the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA in the brain, which helps to reduce excessive neuronal activity and prevent seizures. Its broad efficacy and relatively favorable side effect profile make it a preferred choice for managing different seizure types. Option B) Clonazepam is a benzodiazepine commonly used for absence seizures, but it is not typically considered a first-line agent for other seizure types mentioned in the question. Option C) Ethosuximide is primarily indicated for the treatment of absence seizures and is not as effective for other seizure types mentioned in the question. Option D) Phenytoin is more commonly used for partial and tonic-clonic seizures but is not typically a first-line choice for absence seizures. Educationally, understanding the mechanism of action and specific indications of antiepileptic drugs is crucial for healthcare practitioners to make informed decisions when managing patients with seizures. Knowing the first-line agents for different seizure types helps in optimizing treatment outcomes and minimizing potential side effects.

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