ATI RN
Assessment of Genitourinary System Questions
Question 1 of 5
Certain food sources provide more urea than others. Which of the following foods would provide the most urea that would have to be filtered out of the blood via the kidneys?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Proteins, such as meats and eggs. Proteins are broken down into amino acids in the body, and excess amino acids are converted into urea by the liver. Urea is a waste product that needs to be filtered out by the kidneys. Meats and eggs are rich sources of protein, hence they would provide the most urea to be filtered out. Grains (A), fruits (C), and oils (D) do not contain as much protein as meats and eggs, so they would not produce as much urea for the kidneys to filter out.
Question 2 of 5
During examination of the scrotum, a normal finding would be:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it is a normal anatomical variation for the left testicle to hang lower than the right due to the longer length of the left spermatic cord. This is called the "cremasteric reflex." Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the testicles should feel similar in firmness, size, and tenderness on examination.
Question 3 of 5
This antitubercular drug has penetration to the CSF equal to plasma concentration, of which it is highly useful in meningeal TB:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Pyrazinamide has excellent penetration into CSF due to its small molecular size and lipid solubility. 2. This characteristic makes it highly effective in treating meningeal tuberculosis. 3. Isoniazid, Rifampicin, and Ethambutol do not have the same level of CSF penetration as Pyrazinamide. 4. Isoniazid is primarily metabolized in the liver, Rifampicin has poor CSF penetration, and Ethambutol has limited penetration. 5. Therefore, Pyrazinamide is the most suitable choice for treating meningeal TB due to its ability to reach therapeutic concentrations in the CSF. Summary of incorrect choices: A. Isoniazid is metabolized in the liver and does not have equal penetration to CSF. B. Rifampicin has poor penetration into CSF compared to Pyrazinamide. C. Ethambutol has limited penetration to CS
Question 4 of 5
This class of drug exert its antimicrobial action by binding to 30S ribosomes and inhibit bacterial protein synthesis, is the drug of choice for treating non-gonococcal urethritis caused by Chlamydia and Ureaplasma, but should be avoided in patients with liver disease:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tetracyclines. Tetracyclines work by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit of bacteria, inhibiting protein synthesis. They are effective in treating non-gonococcal urethritis caused by Chlamydia and Ureaplasma. However, tetracyclines should be avoided in patients with liver disease due to the potential for hepatotoxicity. Explanation: 1. Daptomycin (A) is a lipopeptide antibiotic that acts by disrupting bacterial cell membrane function, not by binding to ribosomes. 2. Carbapenems (B) are beta-lactam antibiotics that inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis, not protein synthesis via ribosomal binding. 3. Cephalosporins (C) are beta-lactam antibiotics that also inhibit cell wall synthesis and do not target ribosomes like tetracyclines do.
Question 5 of 5
A 28 year old male patient present with a painless sore in his penis and blood test confirms Treponema pallidum. Which of the following agent is the treatment of choice that can be given as a single dose?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Benzathine penicillin. Benzathine penicillin is the treatment of choice for syphilis caused by Treponema pallidum. It is given as a single dose due to its long-acting nature, ensuring adequate treatment. Ceftriaxone (B) is not the first-line treatment for syphilis. Vancomycin (C) is not effective against Treponema pallidum. Aztreonam (D) is not used for the treatment of syphilis. Therefore, the most appropriate choice for this scenario is Benzathine penicillin.