Cells that contain a nucleus are __________ cells.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: eukaryotic. Eukaryotic cells have a well-defined nucleus that encloses the genetic material. The nucleus is a distinguishing feature of eukaryotic cells, separating them from prokaryotic cells (choice A) which lack a nucleus. Anucleate cells (choice C) are cells that do not have a nucleus at all. Haploid cells (choice D) contain a single set of chromosomes, but this does not necessarily imply the presence of a nucleus. Therefore, the presence of a nucleus is what categorizes cells as eukaryotic.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: heterotrophic. Fungi are heterotrophic organisms that obtain nutrients by absorbing organic compounds from their environment. They do not produce their own food through photosynthesis (option A: autotrophic) or chemosynthesis (option B: chemotrophic). Fungi also do not rely on light for energy (option D: phototrophic). Therefore, the correct choice is C as it accurately describes the nutritional mode of fungi.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Capsule. Capsules are a protective layer outside the bacterial cell wall that helps bacteria evade phagocytosis by immune cells. The capsule inhibits phagocytic cells from engulfing the bacteria, making it difficult for them to be recognized and destroyed. A: Flagella - Flagella are not involved in protecting bacteria from phagocytosis. They are responsible for bacterial movement. C: Endospore - Endospores are dormant, resistant structures formed by some bacteria in response to harsh conditions. They do not directly protect against phagocytosis. D: Pili - Pili are hair-like structures used for adhesion and conjugation, not for protection against phagocytosis.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: BCG. Bacille Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccine is used for the prevention of tuberculosis. BCG is a live attenuated strain of Mycobacterium bovis that helps the immune system recognize and fight off tuberculosis bacteria. Specific anti-tuberculosis serum (A) is not used for prevention but for treatment. DTP (C) stands for diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis vaccine, not specific for tuberculosis prevention. PPD (D) is a tuberculin skin test used for diagnosis, not prevention. Thus, BCG is the correct choice for tuberculosis prevention.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct diagnosis is A: Balantidiasis. The presence of large ciliated protozoa with a kidney-shaped macronucleus is characteristic of Balantidium coli, the causative agent of balantidiasis. The ciliated trophozoites of Balantidium coli are unique compared to the other choices. Giardiasis is caused by Giardia lamblia, which has flagella and not cilia. Amoebiasis is caused by Entamoeba histolytica, which lacks cilia. Trichomoniasis is caused by Trichomonas vaginalis, which also lacks cilia. Therefore, based on the specific morphology described, the correct diagnosis is Balantidiasis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Helicobacter pylori. This bacterium is the most likely causative agent of gastric ulcers. Here's the rationale: 1. Helicobacter pylori is commonly associated with gastric ulcers. 2. It is a gram-negative bacterium that grows on chocolate agar and is oxide reductase-positive. 3. The slow growth on the fifth day is characteristic of H. pylori. 4. Campylobacter jejuni and Campylobacter fetus are not typically associated with gastric ulcers. 5. Mycoplasma hominis is a bacterium that lacks a cell wall and is not commonly found in gastric ulcers.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The most probable diagnosis is A: Candidous cheilitis. Candidous cheilitis is a fungal infection caused by Candida species. In this case, the presence of mycelium on the plaques indicates a fungal infection. The symptoms of pain, burning, and grey plaques that can be easily removed leaving hyperemia are typical for Candidous cheilitis. Choice B (Exfoliative cheilitis) is characterized by scaling and peeling of the lips, not plaques with mycelium. Choice C (Leukoplakia) is a precancerous condition causing white plaques that cannot be easily removed. Choice D (Contactant allergic cheilitis) is an allergic reaction causing inflammation, not fungal plaques.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice A being correct: 1. Parvovirus B19 is a single-stranded DNA (ssDNA) virus. 2. The prefix "parvo-" indicates small size, characteristic of ssDNA viruses. 3. ssDNA viruses replicate in the host cell by converting their ssDNA genome into double-stranded DNA (dsDNA). 4. Therefore, the correct answer is A: Its genome consists of dsDNA. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B: Parvovirus B19 is a non-enveloped virus, making choice B incorrect. C: Parvovirus B19 has a linear ssDNA genome, not segmented, making choice C incorrect. D: Parvovirus B19 has two structural proteins - VP1 and VP2, making choice D incorrect.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Herpangina. Coxsackie Viruses are known to cause Herpangina, which is characterized by sore throat, fever, and painful blisters in the mouth and throat. This is because Coxsackie Viruses typically infect the throat and mouth mucosa. Hemorrhagic conjunctivitis (A) is commonly caused by Adenoviruses, not Coxsackie Viruses. Mumps (C) is caused by the Mumps virus, a completely different virus. Poliomyelitis (D) is caused by the Poliovirus, not Coxsackie Viruses. Therefore, the correct answer is B as it aligns with the known pathogenicity of Coxsackie Viruses.