Cell-mediated immunity is NOT usually associated with what condition:

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Adult Health Nursing Quizlet Final Questions

Question 1 of 9

Cell-mediated immunity is NOT usually associated with what condition:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Cell-mediated immunity is a type of immune response that involves the activation of cytotoxic T cells and other immune cells to directly target and destroy infected or abnormal cells. It does not involve the production of antibodies, which are the primary component of humoral immunity. Antibodies are produced by B cells and are responsible for targeting extracellular pathogens such as bacteria and viruses. In contrast, cell-mediated immunity is more focused on targeting intracellular pathogens, cancerous cells, and other cells that have been compromised. So, production of antibodies is not usually associated with cell-mediated immunity.

Question 2 of 9

A patient with terminal illness expresses a desire to spend quality time with their family but feels guilty for being a burden. How should the palliative nurse respond?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this situation, the most appropriate response for the palliative nurse is to validate the patient's feelings of guilt and offer support to address their concerns. It is important to acknowledge the patient's emotions and help them navigate through their guilt in a compassionate and understanding manner. By validating their feelings, the nurse can create a safe space for the patient to express their concerns and work towards finding solutions to alleviate their guilt. This approach fosters trust and a therapeutic relationship between the patient and the nurse, ultimately promoting emotional well-being and facilitating open communication.

Question 3 of 9

The nurse recognizes that a patient is exhibiting symptoms associated with a TIA. After what period of time does the nurse determine these symptoms will subside?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Transient ischemic attack (TIA) is a temporary episode of neurological dysfunction caused by a temporary disruption in blood supply to the brain. The symptoms of a TIA typically last for a short period of time, usually less than 1 hour. In some cases, the symptoms may last up to 24 hours but generally resolve within a shorter time frame. It is important for healthcare providers to recognize the symptoms of a TIA promptly and assess the patient for appropriate management to prevent the risk of a full-blown stroke.

Question 4 of 9

The patient began receiving an intravenous (IV) infusion of packed red blood cells 30 minutes ago. The patient complains of difficulty of breathing, itching and a tight sensation in the chest. Which is the IMMEDIATE action of the nurse?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The symptoms described by the patient indicate a potential transfusion reaction, such as a hemolytic reaction or allergic reaction. The immediate action the nurse should take in such a situation is to stop the infusion of the packed red blood cells. This will help prevent further complications and ensure the safety of the patient. After stopping the infusion, the nurse should assess the patient's condition, monitor vital signs, and inform the healthcare team, including the physician, regarding the situation. Once the patient is stable, further investigations can be conducted to determine the cause of the reaction.

Question 5 of 9

A pregnant woman presents with vaginal bleeding and passage of tissue at 10 weeks gestation. On examination, the cervix is dilated, and products of conception are visualized in the cervical os. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Complete abortion is the most likely cause of the symptoms described. In a complete abortion, all products of conception are expelled from the uterus. Symptoms include vaginal bleeding, passage of tissue, and dilation of the cervix. In this scenario, the presentation of a dilated cervix with visualized products of conception is classic for a complete abortion at 10 weeks gestation.

Question 6 of 9

A patient presents with recurrent episodes of vertigo, nausea, and nystagmus, often triggered by head movements. Dix-Hallpike maneuver elicits positional vertigo and rotary nystagmus. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The patient's presentation with recurrent episodes of vertigo, nausea, and nystagmus triggered by head movements, along with a positive Dix-Hallpike maneuver eliciting positional vertigo and rotary nystagmus, is classic for Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo (BPPV). BPPV is the most common cause of vertigo due to a mechanical problem in the inner ear. In BPPV, brief episodes of vertigo are typically triggered by specific head movements, such as rolling over in bed or looking up. The characteristic rotary nystagmus observed in BPPV is consistent with the brief, intense episodes of vertigo that patients experience. The Dix-Hallpike maneuver, commonly used to diagnose BPPV, involves moving the patient from sitting to a supine head-hanging position and can induce vertigo and nystagmus in affected

Question 7 of 9

Which of the following is a common complication associated with prostatectomy for the treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Urinary incontinence is a common complication associated with prostatectomy for the treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). Prostate surgery, such as a prostatectomy, can disrupt the sphincter muscle that controls the flow of urine from the bladder, leading to temporary or even long-term urinary incontinence in some patients. This usually improves over time with pelvic floor exercises and other treatment options, but it is an important consideration when discussing the potential risks and benefits of prostate surgery with patients. While erectile dysfunction and retrograde ejaculation can also be potential side effects of prostate surgery, urinary incontinence is specifically associated with issues related to bladder control following the procedure. Urethral stricture, although it can occur post prostate surgery, is less common compared to urinary incontinence.

Question 8 of 9

After administering anesthesia to the patient, the nurse notices a sudden drop in blood pressure. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The nurse's priority action after noticing a sudden drop in blood pressure after administering anesthesia is to assess the patient's airway, breathing, and circulation (ABCs). This is crucial to determine the immediate cause of the sudden drop in blood pressure and to ensure the patient's safety and stability. Assessment of the ABCs will help identify any potential airway obstruction, respiratory distress, or circulatory issues that may be contributing to the drop in blood pressure. Once the assessment is done, appropriate interventions can be initiated to stabilize the patient's condition. Administering vasopressors, documenting the blood pressure readings, and notifying the anesthesiologist are important actions but assessing the ABCs takes precedence in this situation to ensure the patient's immediate needs are addressed.

Question 9 of 9

Cell-mediated immunity is NOT usually associated with what condition:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Cell-mediated immunity is a type of immune response that involves the activation of cytotoxic T cells and other immune cells to directly target and destroy infected or abnormal cells. It does not involve the production of antibodies, which are the primary component of humoral immunity. Antibodies are produced by B cells and are responsible for targeting extracellular pathogens such as bacteria and viruses. In contrast, cell-mediated immunity is more focused on targeting intracellular pathogens, cancerous cells, and other cells that have been compromised. So, production of antibodies is not usually associated with cell-mediated immunity.

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