ATI RN
Midwifery Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Causes of polyhydramnious include:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because congenital abnormalities and chorioangioma can lead to increased amniotic fluid accumulation, causing polyhydramnios. Congenital abnormalities can affect fetal swallowing and urine production, leading to fluid buildup. Chorioangioma is a vascular tumor in the placenta that can disrupt normal fluid dynamics. Choice B is incorrect as severe fetal hypoxia and multiple pregnancy are more likely to cause oligohydramnios, not polyhydramnios. Choice C is incorrect as uncontrolled diabetes mellitus and anemia are associated with macrosomia and not polyhydramnios. Choice D is incorrect because Rhesus D isoimmunisation and postdatism are not typically linked to polyhydramnios.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following statements is true with respect to adrenal tumors that produce gender symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because virilizing adrenal tumors are more likely to be malignant in children. This is due to the fact that virilizing tumors can be associated with conditions like adrenocortical carcinoma, which is a malignant tumor. In contrast, feminizing adrenal tumors are not always carcinomas (choice A) and are not the most common type of adrenal tumor (choice B). Additionally, virilizing tumors in women can be localized to different parts of the adrenal gland, not just the cortex (choice C). Therefore, choice D is the most accurate statement among the options provided.
Question 3 of 9
The commonly used inhalational analgesia during labour is
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Entonox. Entonox, a mixture of nitrous oxide and oxygen, is commonly used for inhalational analgesia during labor due to its fast-acting and safe properties. Nitrous oxide provides pain relief without affecting the baby's heart rate or causing sedation. Trilene (B) is not commonly used during labor due to potential side effects on the baby. Oxygen (C) is not an analgesic but is often used in conjunction with Entonox. Nitrous oxide (D) is the active component in Entonox and is the primary analgesic agent in this mixture.
Question 4 of 9
How does maternal obesity affect pregnancy outcomes?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increases risk of gestational diabetes. Maternal obesity can lead to insulin resistance, increasing the likelihood of developing gestational diabetes during pregnancy. This condition can have negative effects on both the mother and the baby. B: Miscarriage is not directly linked to maternal obesity but can be influenced by other factors. C: Maternal obesity is not a direct cause of anemia during pregnancy. Anemia is usually related to iron deficiency or other factors. D: Maternal obesity is actually associated with an increased risk of preterm labor, not a reduced chance. This is due to various complications such as hypertension and preeclampsia.
Question 5 of 9
K. T. presents for a routine wellness examination, and the review of systems is significant only for a markedly decreased capacity for intake and a vague sense of nausea after eating. K. T. denies any other symptoms the remainder of the GI review of systems is negative. His medical history is significant for complicated peptic ulcer disease that finally required resection for a perforated ulcer. The AGACNP advises the patient that
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: His symptoms occur in 5 to 10% of people after ulcer surgery. This is the correct answer because the patient's symptoms of decreased capacity for intake and nausea after eating are common post-operative complications following ulcer surgery. By stating this fact to the patient, the AGACNP is providing reassurance that these symptoms are not unusual. Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect: A: Endoscopy is not necessary at this point since the symptoms described by the patient are known post-operative complications and do not indicate an urgent need for endoscopy. B: While gastroparesis can be a complication of ulcer surgery, there is no information in the case to suggest that the patient has chronic gastroparesis. C: Jumping to the conclusion that medication is unlikely to help and another surgery may be needed is premature and not supported by the information provided in the case.
Question 6 of 9
Cholesteatoma is a condition characterized by a collection of desquamated keratin leading to bony erosion in the ossicular chain and inner ear. The goal of surgery in cholesteatoma is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Preservation of sensorineural hearing. In cholesteatoma, surgery aims to remove the lesion and prevent further damage to the ossicles and inner ear structures. Preserving sensorineural hearing is crucial to maintain auditory function post-surgery. A: Production of a dry ear is important to prevent recurrence, but not the primary goal. C: Debridement of infection is necessary, but the main aim is to address the cholesteatoma itself. D: Restoration of the tympanic membrane may be needed but is not the primary objective in cholesteatoma surgery.
Question 7 of 9
When examining a patient with abdominal pain, the AGACNP knows that tenderness to percussion is analogous to
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Rebound tenderness. Tenderness to percussion is similar to rebound tenderness because both involve assessing pain upon release of pressure. Rebound tenderness specifically evaluates pain when the examiner quickly removes pressure, indicating peritoneal inflammation. Tympany (A) refers to a drum-like sound upon percussion, not pain. Guarding (B) is involuntary muscle contractions in response to palpation, not percussion. Somatic pain (D) is localized pain arising from skin, muscles, or bones, not related to percussion tenderness.
Question 8 of 9
A clinical feature that is indicative of transient tachypnea of the newborn is
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Transient tachypnea of the newborn is characterized by rapid respirations due to delayed reabsorption of fetal lung fluid. Step 2: Rapid respirations of up to 120/minute is a common clinical feature seen in newborns with transient tachypnea. Step 3: This rapid breathing pattern distinguishes it from other conditions. Step 4: Marked recession of the rib cage is more indicative of respiratory distress syndrome. Step 5: Transient tachypnea can occur in both normal and cesarean deliveries, so choice C is incorrect. Step 6: Diminished respirations of less than 40/minute would not be expected in transient tachypnea. Summary: Choice A is correct because rapid respirations are a key clinical feature of transient tachypnea, while the other choices do not align with its characteristic presentation.
Question 9 of 9
A patient who has been in the intensive care unit for 17 days develops hyponatremic hyperosmolality. The patient weighs 132 lb (59.9 kg), is intubated, and is receiving mechanical ventilation. The serum osmolality is 320 mOsmL kg H2O. Clinical signs include tachycardia and hypotension. The adult-gerontology acute care nurse practitioners initial treatment is to
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: reduce serum sodium concentration by infusing a 0.45% sodium chloride solution. In hyponatremic hyperosmolality, the primary goal is to correct the low serum sodium levels. A 0.45% sodium chloride solution is hypotonic, which helps to slowly correct the serum sodium concentration without causing rapid shifts in osmolality. Infusing a hypotonic solution will gradually increase the serum sodium levels, addressing the underlying issue. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the low serum sodium levels, which is essential in treating hyponatremic hyperosmolality. Infusing a 5% dextrose in 0.2% sodium chloride solution (Choice A) or a 5% dextrose in water solution (Choice D) would not correct the low sodium levels. Replenishing volume with a 0.9% sodium chloride solution (Choice C) would not directly