ATI RN
Chapter 14 Nutrition and Fluid Balance Workbook Answers Questions
Question 1 of 5
Carbon dioxide is unintentionally increased as a cause of respiratory acidosis but is deliberately increased as a compensation for metabolic alkalosis.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. In respiratory acidosis, there is an increase in carbon dioxide levels due to impaired gas exchange, leading to acidosis. To compensate for metabolic alkalosis, the body deliberately increases carbon dioxide levels through hypoventilation to help restore acid-base balance. This deliberate increase in carbon dioxide helps to lower pH and counteract the alkalosis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the relationship between carbon dioxide levels and respiratory acidosis or metabolic alkalosis.
Question 2 of 5
A patient who is lethargic and with deep, rapid respirations has the following arterial blood gas (ABG) results: pH 7.32, PaO 88 mm Hg, PaCO 2 2
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Respiratory Acidosis. Rationale: 1. The low pH of 7.32 indicates acidosis. 2. The PaCO2 level of 88 mm Hg is high, indicating respiratory acidosis. 3. Deep, rapid respirations are a compensatory mechanism to try to decrease CO2 levels. 4. PaO2 level is not significantly low to suggest respiratory alkalosis. Summary: A: Incorrect. The low HCO3 level and high PaCO2 suggest respiratory acidosis, not base balance. B: Incorrect. While acidosis is present, it is respiratory, not metabolic. C: Incorrect. The ABG results do not support metabolic alkalosis.
Question 3 of 5
A patient who has been hospitalized for 2 days, has a nasogastric tube to low suction and is receiving normal saline IV at 100 mL/hr. Which assessment finding would be a priority for the nurse to report to the health care provider?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased alertness since admission. This finding indicates a potential neurological issue, such as electrolyte imbalance or fluid overload, which could be critical for the patient's well-being. The nurse should report this immediately to prevent further complications. A: Oral temperature of 100.1 F is a low-grade fever and may indicate infection, but it is not as urgent as a neurological issue. C: Weight gain of 2 pounds over 2 days may suggest fluid retention, but it is not as critical as a neurological change. D: Serum sodium level of 138 mEq/L is within the normal range and does not indicate an immediate threat to the patient's health.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is caring for a patient who has undergone major abdominal surgery. The nurse notices that the patient's urine output has been less than 20 mL/hour for the past 2 hours. The patient's blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg, and the pulse is 110 beats/min. Previously, the pulse was 90 beats/min with a blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg. The nurse should
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: The patient has signs of decreased urine output (oliguria), which can indicate inadequate kidney perfusion. Step 2: The patient's low urine output coupled with a drop in blood pressure and increased heart rate suggests hypovolemia. Step 3: Administering a normal saline bolus can help restore intravascular volume and improve kidney perfusion, addressing the underlying issue. Step 4: Contacting the provider for a prescription ensures timely intervention to prevent further complications like acute kidney injury. Summary: - Option B is incorrect because waiting for the provider may delay necessary treatment. - Option C delays immediate intervention for a potentially critical situation. - Option D is incorrect as ignoring oliguria in this context can lead to serious consequences.
Question 5 of 5
The patient is in a progressive care unit following arteriovenous fistula implantation in his left upper arm, and is due to have blood drawn with his next set of vital signs and assessment. When the nurse assesses the patient, the nurse should
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Auscultating the left arm for a bruit and palpating for a thrill are essential post-arteriovenous fistula implantation assessments. A bruit indicates turbulent blood flow, which could suggest stenosis or occlusion. A thrill indicates the patency of the fistula. Drawing blood from the left arm (A) should be avoided to prevent damage to the fistula. Taking blood pressure from the left arm (B) could also damage the fistula. Starting a new intravenous line in the left lower arm (C) is unnecessary and could increase the risk of infection.