Capillary glucose monitoring is being performed every 4 hours for a client diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis. Insulin is administered using a scale of regular insulin according to glucose results. At 2 p.m., the client has a capillary glucose level of 250 mg/dl for which he receives 8 U of regular insulin. Nurse Mariner should expect the dose's:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Regular insulin typically has an onset of action around 30 minutes after administration, with its peak action occurring around 2-4 hours later. In this case, the insulin was administered at 2 p.m., so the onset would be around 2:30 p.m. and the peak around 4 p.m. Option A is incorrect because the onset of action is not immediate at 2 p.m. and peak action happens later. Option B is incorrect as the onset would be closer to 2:30 p.m. Option D is incorrect as the peak action would not occur 2 hours after onset. Therefore, option C is the most appropriate based on the pharmacokinetics of regular insulin.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Essential thrombocytopenia. Clients with SLE are at risk for developing various blood dyscrasias, including thrombocytopenia (low platelet count). Thrombocytopenia can lead to an increased risk of bleeding, which is important for the client to be aware of. Dressler's syndrome (A) is a post-myocardial infarction syndrome and not directly related to SLE. Polycythemia (B) is an increase in red blood cells, not typically associated with SLE. Von Willebrand's disease (D) is a bleeding disorder due to a deficiency in von Willebrand factor, but it is not commonly seen in SLE.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Rationale: - Option D is correct because it acknowledges the mother's concern, provides reassurance, and educates about the temporary nature of the hair loss due to the treatment. - It shows empathy, offers hope, and addresses the mother's emotional distress in a supportive and informative manner. Summary: - Option A ignores the mother's feelings and does not address the underlying concern. - Option B is dismissive and invalidates the mother's emotions, lacking empathy. - Option C suggests suppressing emotions, which can be harmful and does not address the mother's concern.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Impaired clotting mechanism. Cirrhosis can lead to decreased production of clotting factors by the liver, resulting in impaired blood clotting ability. This puts Mr. Gonzales at a higher risk of excessive bleeding. Varix formation (B) can cause bleeding but is not the primary reason in this case. Inadequate nutrition (C) may contribute to overall health but is not directly linked to bleeding risk. Trauma of invasive procedure (D) is a potential risk but not the primary concern in cirrhosis.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because it accurately defines mental health as a state of overall well-being where an individual can recognize their abilities, manage normal life stressors, and function effectively. This definition takes into account the holistic nature of mental health, emphasizing not just the absence of illness but also the presence of positive qualities. Option A is incorrect as it specifically refers to the symptom of psychosis, not mental health as a whole. Option C is incorrect as it focuses on different aspects of mental health care rather than the definition of mental health itself. Option D is incorrect as it only defines mental health in terms of the absence of illness, which is an oversimplified and incomplete understanding.