By what age should the nurse expect an infant to be able to pull to a standing position?

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Pediatric Nursing Practice Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

By what age should the nurse expect an infant to be able to pull to a standing position?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In pediatric nursing, understanding developmental milestones is crucial for assessing a child's growth and well-being. The correct answer, option C) 11 to 12 months, aligns with the typical age range at which most infants develop the strength and coordination to pull themselves to a standing position. At this stage, infants have usually developed sufficient muscle strength and balance to support themselves in an upright position. Option A) 6 months is too early for most infants to achieve this milestone as they are still developing their gross motor skills and muscle strength. Option B) 8 months is also premature for this milestone, as infants at this age are typically focused on mastering sitting and crawling. Option D) 14 to 15 months is too late for pulling to a standing position, as most infants would have already achieved this milestone by the age of 12 months. Educationally, understanding these developmental timelines helps nurses and healthcare providers identify any potential delays or issues in a child's development. It also allows for appropriate anticipatory guidance to be provided to parents regarding what to expect as their child grows and develops. By recognizing these milestones, nurses can offer early interventions or referrals if necessary, promoting optimal health and development in pediatric patients.

Question 2 of 5

The parents of a 12-month-old child ask the nurse if the child can eat hot dogs as do their other children. The nurse's reply should be based on which of the following?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D) Hot dogs must be cut into small, irregular pieces to prevent aspiration. This is the correct response because hot dogs are a choking hazard for young children due to their cylindrical shape and tendency to become lodged in the airway. Cutting them into small, irregular pieces reduces the risk of choking and aspiration in toddlers who are still developing their chewing and swallowing skills. Option A is incorrect because the issue is not solely about digestion, but rather about the risk of choking. Option B is also incorrect as it does not address the specific action needed to make hot dogs safer for the child. Option C is not as effective as option D because slicing hot dogs into sections does not reduce the choking risk as effectively as cutting them into small, irregular pieces. In an educational context, it is crucial for pediatric nurses to educate parents about age-appropriate feeding practices to prevent choking hazards in young children. Providing clear guidance on food preparation and serving sizes can help prevent accidents and promote safe eating habits for toddlers.

Question 3 of 5

Alcohol acts primarily as a CNS depressant. It produces all the following EXCEPT

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Alcohol is a central nervous system (CNS) depressant that slows down brain function. The correct answer is D) hyperthermia because alcohol actually has the opposite effect, often leading to a decrease in body temperature. A) Euphoria is a common effect of alcohol consumption due to its impact on the brain's reward system. B) Impaired short-term memory is a well-known consequence of alcohol use as it interferes with the brain's ability to form new memories. C) Increased pain threshold is another effect of alcohol consumption, as it can dull sensations and make individuals less sensitive to pain. In an educational context, understanding the effects of alcohol on the body is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially in pediatric nursing. It is important to recognize the signs and symptoms of alcohol intoxication in children and adolescents, as well as understanding the potential risks and complications associated with alcohol use at a young age. This knowledge allows nurses to provide appropriate care, support, and education to young patients and their families regarding alcohol use and abuse.

Question 4 of 5

Potential adverse effects of Depo-provera include

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D) weight gain. Depo-provera is a contraceptive injection that contains the hormone progestin. One of the common side effects associated with Depo-provera use is weight gain. This is believed to be due to increased appetite and potential changes in metabolism. Option A) heavy menstrual bleeding is not a typical adverse effect of Depo-provera. In fact, one of the advantages of using Depo-provera is that it often leads to decreased menstrual bleeding or even amenorrhea in some individuals. Option B) dysmenorrhea, which refers to painful periods, is also not a common adverse effect of Depo-provera. In fact, Depo-provera is sometimes prescribed to help manage conditions like endometriosis, which can cause dysmenorrhea. Option C) acne is not a primary adverse effect of Depo-provera. While some individuals may experience changes in their skin while on Depo-provera, acne is not a commonly reported side effect. In an educational context, understanding the potential adverse effects of medications is crucial for healthcare providers, especially in pediatric nursing. It allows for informed decision-making when prescribing medications and enables the monitoring and management of side effects to ensure the well-being of pediatric patients. By knowing the specific adverse effects of medications like Depo-provera, nurses can provide comprehensive care and education to patients and their families.

Question 5 of 5

A 32-week preterm baby on mechanical ventilation, recovering from RDS, has a satisfactory blood gas, and ventilatory settings are being reduced for weaning. What is the most valuable indicator that the baby is ready for extubation?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In pediatric nursing, the decision to extubate a preterm baby on mechanical ventilation requires careful assessment to ensure a safe transition. In this scenario, the most valuable indicator that the baby is ready for extubation is option B) fraction of inspired O2 0.55. Fraction of inspired oxygen (FiO2) is a crucial parameter as it indicates the level of oxygen being delivered to the baby. A FiO2 of 0.55 suggests that the baby is receiving a moderate level of oxygen support, which is a positive sign that the baby's respiratory status has improved. This indicates that the baby's lungs are functioning adequately and can maintain oxygenation without the high levels of support provided by mechanical ventilation. Examining the other options: A) Frequency of respiration 35: While respiratory rate is important, it alone is not sufficient to determine readiness for extubation. C) Peak expiratory end pressure 6: This parameter is related to the level of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) and does not directly indicate readiness for extubation. D) Inspiratory pressure 8: While inspiratory pressure is important for ventilation support, it alone does not signify the baby's readiness for extubation. Educationally, understanding the significance of FiO2 in the context of weaning preterm babies off mechanical ventilation is crucial for pediatric nurses. It highlights the importance of monitoring oxygenation status and respiratory support levels to make informed decisions regarding extubation, ensuring the best outcomes for these vulnerable patients.

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