ATI RN
Chapter 14 Drugs for the Reproductive System Questions
Question 1 of 5
Buprenorphine acts as a
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Partial agonist at Mu receptor. Buprenorphine is a partial agonist at the Mu opioid receptor, meaning it activates the receptor to produce a partial response compared to a full agonist. This property allows for reduced risk of respiratory depression and overdose compared to full agonists. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because buprenorphine does not act as a full agonist at either the Mu or Kappa receptors. It is important to understand the pharmacological properties of buprenorphine to optimize its use in clinical practice.
Question 2 of 5
First pass effect is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the first pass effect refers to the amount of drug that is lost due to hepatic metabolism when a drug is absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract after oral administration. This process occurs before the drug reaches systemic circulation, reducing the bioavailability of the drug. Option A is incorrect as hepatic artery does not eliminate the drug. Option B is incorrect as it refers to drug excretion via stool. Option C is incorrect as it refers to drug destruction by stomach acidity, not hepatic metabolism.
Question 3 of 5
Drugs showing zero-order kinetics of elimination:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because drugs exhibiting zero-order kinetics have a linear plot of drug concentration versus time. In zero-order kinetics, the rate of drug elimination remains constant regardless of drug concentration, leading to a linear decrease in drug concentration over time. Choice A is incorrect as first-order kinetics are more common. Choice B is incorrect as zero-order kinetics show a constant rate of elimination, not exponential decrease. Choice C is incorrect as the half-life of drugs exhibiting zero-order kinetics is dose-dependent.
Question 4 of 5
All of the following about free drugs (unbound drugs) in plasma are correct EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because highly bound drugs (98% bound) do not have clinically significant drug-drug interactions through displacement from binding sites on plasma proteins. This is because only the unbound (free) fraction of a drug is pharmacologically active and available for interactions. Highly bound drugs are bound to proteins and not readily available for interactions. Regarding the other choices: B: Only free drugs can pass through glomerular filtration - Correct, as only unbound drugs can be filtered through the kidneys. C: Only free drugs become available for hepatic metabolism - Correct, as only unbound drugs can undergo metabolism in the liver. D: Only free drugs can distribute to peripheral tissues - Correct, as only unbound drugs can leave the bloodstream and reach peripheral tissues.
Question 5 of 5
What is the time required to change the amount of a drug in plasma by half during elimination?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Half-life (t1/2). Half-life is the time required for the concentration of a drug in plasma to decrease by half during elimination. It is a measure of how quickly a drug is removed from the body. It is independent of dose or concentration. Absorption time (A) is the time it takes for a drug to enter the bloodstream. Metabolic time (B) refers to the time it takes for a drug to be metabolized in the body. Clearance time (D) is the time it takes for the body to clear a certain amount of drug from the plasma, but it does not specifically indicate the time required for half of the drug to be eliminated.