ATI RN
Midwifery Exam Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Bruised and oedematous appearance of the uterus, associated with placenta abruption, is collectively referred to as
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Couvelaire uterus. This condition is characterized by a bruised and edematous appearance of the uterus due to severe placental abruption. The rationale is that a Couvelaire uterus specifically refers to this presentation, while the other choices do not. A: Wernicke's encephalopathy is a neurological disorder caused by thiamine deficiency. B: Uterine prolapse is the descent or herniation of the uterus into or beyond the vagina. D: Asherman's syndrome involves intrauterine adhesions leading to menstrual irregularities.
Question 2 of 5
A client diagnosed with gestational diabetes at 24 weeks is scheduled for ANC care every
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Four weekly up to 28 weeks. Gestational diabetes requires close monitoring of blood sugar levels and fetal well-being. ANC care every four weeks up to 28 weeks ensures proper management and early detection of any complications. Weekly or two weekly visits (options A and B) may be too frequent and unnecessary at this stage unless there are specific concerns. Three weekly visits (option D) may not provide adequate monitoring intervals. Therefore, option C is the most appropriate choice for the optimal management of gestational diabetes at this stage of pregnancy.
Question 3 of 5
The drug of choice in the management of eclampsia is
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Magnesium sulphate. It is the drug of choice in managing eclampsia due to its ability to prevent and control seizures. Magnesium sulfate is a central nervous system depressant that reduces neuronal excitability and neuromuscular transmission, thus preventing seizures. It also helps in lowering blood pressure and preventing complications. Phenobarbitone (A) is not the first-line treatment for eclampsia. Calcium gluconate (B) is used for calcium deficiency, not eclampsia. Sodium bicarbonate (D) is used to correct acidosis, not for managing eclampsia.
Question 4 of 5
In eclampsia, violent contraction and relaxation of the whole body occurs in
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clonic stage. In eclampsia, the clonic stage is characterized by violent contraction and relaxation of the whole body due to generalized seizures. During this stage, rhythmic jerking movements occur. The other choices are incorrect because: B: Coma stage - In this stage, the individual is unconscious and not experiencing violent body movements. C: Premonitory stage - This stage includes warning signs like headache and visual disturbances, but not the violent body movements seen in eclampsia. D: Tonic stage - This stage involves sustained muscle contractions without relaxation, unlike the alternating contraction and relaxation seen in the clonic stage of eclampsia.
Question 5 of 5
A neonate of a smear-negative mother just before birth receives BCG as usual.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: TRUE. This is because BCG vaccination for newborns is recommended even if the mother is smear-negative for tuberculosis, as it helps protect the newborn from severe forms of TB. Smear status of the mother does not impact the need for BCG vaccination in the neonate. Choice B is incorrect as it falsely implies that BCG should not be given in this scenario. Choices C and D are not applicable as they do not provide any information.