ATI RN
Human Reproductive System pdf Questions
Question 1 of 5
Breastbone is otherwise known as
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sternum. The sternum is commonly referred to as the breastbone because it is a flat bone located in the center of the chest. It connects to the rib cage and helps protect vital organs such as the heart and lungs. The xiphoid process (choice A) is the lower part of the sternum, the clavicle (choice C) is the collarbone, and the coracoid process (choice D) is a projection on the scapula. Therefore, the sternum is the most appropriate term for the breastbone.
Question 2 of 5
Once sperm are produced by the testes they move into and mature in the
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: epididymis. After being produced in the testes, sperm move into the epididymis for maturation. The epididymis provides the optimal environment for sperm storage and maturation, allowing them to gain motility and fertilization capability. The seminiferous tubes (A) are where sperm are produced, not matured. The penis (B) is the external organ for ejaculation, not maturation. The vas deferens (C) is the tube that carries mature sperm from the epididymis to the urethra, not the site of sperm maturation.
Question 3 of 5
Prophase I of the spermatocyte phase lasts approximately:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D (16 days) because prophase I of spermatocyte phase involves complex processes like chromosome pairing and recombination, which take time. It is a crucial stage in sperm formation. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they underestimate the duration required for these intricate cellular events to occur. A shorter timeframe would not allow for proper genetic exchange and segregation, essential for genetic diversity in offspring. Thus, a longer duration like 16 days is necessary for the completion of prophase I in spermatocyte phase.
Question 4 of 5
A 15 year old high school football player is in your clinic, c/o severe testicular pain since 8 am this morning. Denies sexual activity. Unable to urinate due to pain. He is nauseated and is vomiting. He is lying on the exam table, uncomfortably shifting his position. His BP is 150/100, pulse is 110, respirations are 24. There are no lesions on the penis and no discharge from the meatus. The scrotal skin is tense and red. Palpation of the left testicle causes severe pain and the patient begins to cry. Prostate exam is normal. His cremasteric reflex is absent on the left but is normal on the right. Urine sample (by catheter) is normal. You send him to the emergency room. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct diagnosis is torsion of the spermatic cord. This condition presents with sudden severe testicular pain, nausea, vomiting, high blood pressure, tachycardia, and absence of cremasteric reflex. The key findings include red, tense scrotal skin, severe pain on palpation, and crying. The absence of discharge and normal prostate exam rule out prostatitis. Acute orchitis typically presents with fever and urinary symptoms, which are absent here. Acute epididymitis usually presents with gradual onset and urinary symptoms. Torsion of the spermatic cord is a surgical emergency requiring immediate intervention to prevent testicular ischemia and necrosis.
Question 5 of 5
The average menstrual cycle is
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D (28 days) as it is the average length of a menstrual cycle, which is typically counted from the first day of one period to the first day of the next. The menstrual cycle is controlled by hormonal changes and the average duration is around 28 days. This length allows for the proper preparation and shedding of the uterine lining. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the typical length of a menstrual cycle, which is around 28 days.