ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Both the electroencephalogram (EEG) monitor and the Bis pectral Index Score (BIS) or Patient State Index (PSI) analyzer monitors are used to ass ess patient sedation levels in critically ill patients. Why are the BIS and PSI monitors simpler to use?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because BIS and PSI monitors provide both raw EEG data and a numeric value, simplifying the interpretation of patient sedation levels. Raw EEG data offers detailed information on brain activity, while the numeric value allows for quick assessment. This simplifies the monitoring process compared to interpreting raw EEG data alone. Choice A is incorrect as BIS and PSI monitors are not restricted to heavily sedated patients. Choice B is incorrect as they are not limited to pediatric patients. Choice D is incorrect as the number of leads required does not determine the simplicity of use; it is the data interpretation that matters.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient with a left radial arterial lianbierb, .caonmd/t eas tp ulmonary artery catheter inserted into the right subclavian vein. Which action by th e nurse best ensures the safety of the patient being monitored with invasive hemodynamic moni toring lines?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Zero reference the system daily. Zero referencing ensures accuracy and calibration of pressure monitoring system by setting the baseline pressure to zero. This is crucial to prevent inaccuracies in measurements. Choice A is important but doesn't directly address the accuracy of the monitoring system. Choice B may help in preventing errors but doesn't address the accuracy of pressure measurement. Choice D is important for alerting the nurse but doesn't directly relate to the accuracy of hemodynamic monitoring.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse has achieved certification in critical care nursing. What is the most important effect that this certification will have on the nurses practice?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Increased confidence in critical thinking. Achieving certification in critical care nursing validates the nurse's expertise and knowledge in this specialized area, leading to increased confidence in their ability to critically think through complex patient situations. This confidence translates into improved clinical decision-making and patient outcomes. A: Recognition by peers - While recognition by peers is important for professional growth, the primary benefit of certification is enhancing clinical skills. B: Increase in salary and rank - While certification may lead to salary increases in some cases, the most significant impact is on improving clinical skills. C: More flexibility in seeking employment - While certification may enhance employability, the focus is on improving critical thinking skills rather than employment opportunities.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse caring for a patient diagnosed with acute respiratory failure identifies “Risk for Ineffective Airway Clearance” as a nursing diagnosis. Wh at nursing intervention is relevant to this diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Elevate head of bed to 30 degrees. Elevating the head of the bed helps promote optimal airway clearance by facilitating drainage of secretions and reducing the risk of aspiration. This position also improves lung expansion and oxygenation. Choice B is important for preventing venous thromboembolism but not directly related to airway clearance. Choice C may not be appropriate as excessive sedation can impair airway clearance. Choice D is important for preventing pressure ulcers but does not directly address airway clearance.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is assessing an older client and determines that the client's left upper eyelid droops, covering more of the iris than the right eyelid. Which description should the nurse use to document this finding?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ptosis on the left eyelid. Ptosis refers to drooping of the eyelid, which is a common condition in older adults. In this scenario, the nurse should document the finding as ptosis on the left eyelid because the client's left upper eyelid is drooping, covering more of the iris than the right eyelid. Explanation: Nystagmus (A) is an involuntary eye movement, not related to eyelid drooping. Exophthalmos (B) is the protrusion of the eyeball and not relevant to this scenario. Astigmatism (D) refers to a refractive error of the eye and does not cause eyelid drooping. Therefore, the correct choice is C as it accurately describes the client's condition.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse discharging a patient diagnosed with asthma ins tructs the patient to prevent exacerbation by taking what action?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Taking all asthma medications as prescribed. This is the most appropriate action to prevent exacerbation of asthma symptoms. By taking medications as prescribed, the patient can effectively manage and control their asthma, reducing the risk of exacerbation. Following the prescribed medication regimen helps to keep inflammation in check and maintain airway function. Choice A is incorrect because while follow-up appointments are important, they do not directly prevent exacerbation. Choice B is incorrect as limiting activity may not address the underlying cause of exacerbation. Choice D is incorrect as taking medications on an "as needed" basis may not provide consistent control of asthma symptoms, leading to potential exacerbation.
Question 7 of 9
The patient is getting hemodialysis for the second time when he complains of a headache and nausea and, a little later, of becoming confused. The nurse realizes these are symptoms of
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: dialysis disequilibrium syndrome. This occurs when there is a rapid decrease in urea concentration in the blood during hemodialysis, causing fluid shifts and cerebral edema leading to symptoms like headache, nausea, and confusion. Dialyzer membrane incompatibility (A) would present with allergic reactions, not neurological symptoms. A shift in potassium levels (B) may cause muscle weakness or cardiac arrhythmias, but not the described symptoms. Hypothermia (D) would present with low body temperature and shivering, not the neurological symptoms mentioned.
Question 8 of 9
What is the best way to monitor agitation and effectivenes s of treating it in the critically ill patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Richmond Agitation Sedation Scale (RASS). RASS is specifically designed to monitor agitation and sedation levels in critically ill patients, providing a standardized and objective assessment. It includes clear descriptors for different levels of agitation and sedation, allowing for consistent monitoring and treatment adjustments. CAM-ICU is mainly used for delirium assessment, not agitation. FACES assessment tool is more appropriate for pain assessment. Glasgow Coma Scale is focused on assessing level of consciousness, not agitation specifically. By using RASS, healthcare providers can accurately track agitation levels and evaluate the effectiveness of interventions in managing agitation in critically ill patients.
Question 9 of 9
A male client who has been taking propranolol (Inderal) for 18 months tells the nurse that the healthcare provider discontinued the medication because his blood pressure has been normal for the past three months. Which instruction should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ask the healthcare provider about tapering the drug dose over the next week. This answer is correct because propranolol is a beta-blocker, and abrupt discontinuation can lead to rebound hypertension, angina, or even myocardial infarction due to the sudden withdrawal of the medication. Tapering the drug dose over time allows the body to adjust gradually and reduces the risk of these adverse effects. Choice A is incorrect because obtaining another antihypertensive prescription is not necessary if the client's blood pressure has been normal for the past three months. Choice B is incorrect because abruptly stopping the medication without tapering can lead to withdrawal symptoms. Choice C is incorrect because simply reporting uncomfortable symptoms without taking appropriate action (tapering the drug dose) is not addressing the potential risks associated with abrupt discontinuation of propranolol.