ATI RN
Nursing Process 1 Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Blood cells are formed in the:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bone marrow. Blood cells are primarily formed in the bone marrow through a process called hematopoiesis. The bone marrow contains stem cells that differentiate into various types of blood cells, including red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. Arterioles are small blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart, not involved in blood cell formation. Lymphoid tissue plays a role in immune function but not in blood cell production. Muscle tissue is primarily responsible for movement and does not have a role in blood cell formation. Therefore, the bone marrow is the correct answer as it is the main site of blood cell production in the body.
Question 2 of 9
When the nurse is reviewing a patient’s daily laboratory test results, which of the ff. electrolyte imbalances should the nurse recognize as predisposing the patient to digoxin toxicity?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Digoxin toxicity can be potentiated by hypokalemia due to the risk of enhanced cardiac toxicity. 2. Hypokalemia can lead to increased sensitivity of cardiac cells to digoxin. 3. Low potassium levels can disrupt the sodium-potassium ATPase pump, enhancing digoxin's effects. 4. The nurse should recognize hypokalemia as a predisposing factor for digoxin toxicity. Summary: A: Hypokalemia is the correct answer as it enhances digoxin toxicity by affecting cardiac function. B: Hyponatremia does not directly predispose to digoxin toxicity. C: Hyperkalemia is not a predisposing factor and can actually counteract digoxin's effects. D: Hypernatremia is not directly related to digoxin toxicity.
Question 3 of 9
If the systolic BP is elevated and the diastolic BP is normal, the nurse recognizes that a patient is most likely to have which type of hypertension?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Isolated systolic hypertension. This is because in isolated systolic hypertension, the systolic blood pressure is elevated while the diastolic blood pressure remains normal. This condition is common in older adults and is often related to aging and stiffening of the arteries. Primary hypertension (A) typically involves both elevated systolic and diastolic pressures. Secondary hypertension (C) is caused by an underlying condition. Hypertensive emergency (D) is characterized by severe elevations in both systolic and diastolic pressures with acute target organ damage.
Question 4 of 9
What is the last step when inserting an IV cannula?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Secure the cannula with tape. This is the last step in inserting an IV cannula to ensure it stays in place and prevents dislodgement or movement. Securing the cannula with tape helps maintain proper positioning and prevents accidental removal. Documenting the insertion site, date, and type of cannula used (B) is important but typically done earlier in the process. Assessing the site (C) should be done before securing the cannula to ensure proper placement. Placing a sterile dressing over the insertion site (D) is also important, but it usually comes before securing the cannula with tape to maintain a clean and sterile environment.
Question 5 of 9
Why should the nurse monitor angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors cautiously in clients with renal or hepatic impairment and in older adults?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: A sudden drop in BP may occur during the first 1-3 hours after the initial dose. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors can cause vasodilation, leading to a reduction in blood pressure. In clients with renal or hepatic impairment and in older adults, these medications may not be cleared from the body as efficiently, increasing the risk of hypotension. Monitoring is crucial to prevent complications. Incorrect choices: A: A sudden raise in BP is unlikely with angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors. C: Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors do not affect body temperature. D: Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors typically do not cause a sudden rise in pulse rate. In summary, monitoring for a potential drop in blood pressure is essential in vulnerable populations when using angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse caring for a client admitted to the intensive care unit with a stroke assesses the client’s vital signs, pupils, and orientation every few minutes. The nurse is performing which type of assessment?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Focused assessment. In this scenario, the nurse is continuously monitoring specific aspects such as vital signs, pupils, and orientation at regular intervals, which is characteristic of a focused assessment. This type of assessment allows the nurse to gather specific data related to the client's condition and respond promptly to any changes. A: Initial assessment is conducted upon admission to establish baseline data. C: Time-lapsed reassessment involves comparing current data to previous assessments over a longer period. D: Emergency assessment is performed in urgent situations to quickly identify life-threatening issues. By systematically assessing the client's vital signs, pupils, and orientation at frequent intervals, the nurse can provide timely and appropriate care in the intensive care unit setting.
Question 7 of 9
Which neurotransmitter mediates the sympathetic response?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Norepinephrine. Norepinephrine is the primary neurotransmitter that mediates the sympathetic response. It is released by sympathetic nerve endings and acts on adrenergic receptors in various target organs to initiate the "fight or flight" response. Prostaglandin, acetylcholine, and serotonin do not directly mediate the sympathetic response and are involved in different physiological processes.
Question 8 of 9
The following. items are transported in blood plasma, EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oxygen. Oxygen is primarily transported in the blood bound to hemoglobin within red blood cells, not dissolved in plasma. Carbon dioxide is transported in plasma. Nutrients and hormones are also transported in plasma. Therefore, choice A is incorrect as oxygen is not primarily transported in plasma.
Question 9 of 9
The following would be a symptom the nurse would expect to find during assessment of a patient with macular degeneration, EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Loss of peripheral vision. Macular degeneration affects the central vision, specifically the macula, which is responsible for central vision and sharp detail. Loss of peripheral vision is not a typical symptom of macular degeneration. The macula is located in the center of the retina, so symptoms would relate to central vision impairments such as decreased ability to distinguish colors, loss of central vision, and loss of near vision. Peripheral vision is not primarily affected by macular degeneration, hence it is not an expected symptom.