Blood cells are formed in the:

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Nursing Process 1 Test Questions Questions

Question 1 of 9

Blood cells are formed in the:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bone marrow. Blood cells are primarily formed in the bone marrow through a process called hematopoiesis. The bone marrow contains stem cells that differentiate into various types of blood cells, including red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. Arterioles are small blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart, not involved in blood cell formation. Lymphoid tissue plays a role in immune function but not in blood cell production. Muscle tissue is primarily responsible for movement and does not have a role in blood cell formation. Therefore, the bone marrow is the correct answer as it is the main site of blood cell production in the body.

Question 2 of 9

If the systolic BP is elevated and the diastolic BP is normal, the nurse recognizes that a patient is most likely to have which type of hypertension?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Isolated systolic hypertension. This is because in isolated systolic hypertension, the systolic blood pressure is elevated while the diastolic blood pressure remains normal. This condition is common in older adults and is often related to aging and stiffening of the arteries. Primary hypertension (A) typically involves both elevated systolic and diastolic pressures. Secondary hypertension (C) is caused by an underlying condition. Hypertensive emergency (D) is characterized by severe elevations in both systolic and diastolic pressures with acute target organ damage.

Question 3 of 9

As the surgical incision is closed, who are the personnel in-charge in counting the needles, sponges, and instruments?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C - the circulating and scrub nurse first assistant. The circulating nurse is responsible for counting needles, sponges, and instruments during the closing of the surgical incision to ensure nothing is left inside the patient. The scrub nurse first assistant also plays a crucial role in this process by assisting in the counting and keeping track of the items used during the procedure. The other choices are incorrect because the surgeon and anesthesiologist (A) are not typically involved in counting items during the surgical closure, the surgeon and the registered (B) may not have the necessary training for accurate counting, and the anesthesiologist and anesthetist (D) are not directly involved in the surgical closing process.

Question 4 of 9

When the nurse is reviewing a patient’s daily laboratory test results, which of the ff. electrolyte imbalances should the nurse recognize as predisposing the patient to digoxin toxicity?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Digoxin toxicity can be potentiated by hypokalemia due to the risk of enhanced cardiac toxicity. 2. Hypokalemia can lead to increased sensitivity of cardiac cells to digoxin. 3. Low potassium levels can disrupt the sodium-potassium ATPase pump, enhancing digoxin's effects. 4. The nurse should recognize hypokalemia as a predisposing factor for digoxin toxicity. Summary: A: Hypokalemia is the correct answer as it enhances digoxin toxicity by affecting cardiac function. B: Hyponatremia does not directly predispose to digoxin toxicity. C: Hyperkalemia is not a predisposing factor and can actually counteract digoxin's effects. D: Hypernatremia is not directly related to digoxin toxicity.

Question 5 of 9

A client, age 42, visits the gynecologist. After examining her, the physician suspects cervical cancer. The nurse reviews the client’s history for risk factors for this disease. Which history finding is a risk factor for cervical cancer?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Human papilloma virus (HPV) infection at age 32. HPV is a known risk factor for cervical cancer as it can lead to cellular changes in the cervix. Here's the rationale: 1. HPV is a sexually transmitted infection that can cause abnormal cell growth in the cervix. 2. Persistent HPV infection is a major risk factor for developing cervical cancer. 3. Age 32 is within the typical age range for HPV infection and the development of cervical cancer. 4. Choices A, B, and C are unrelated to the primary risk factor for cervical cancer, which is HPV infection.

Question 6 of 9

. During the first 24 hours after a client is diagnosed with Addisonian crisis, which of the following should the nurse perform frequently?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, assess vital signs, as it is crucial to monitor the client's hemodynamic stability and response to treatment during the critical initial 24 hours of Addisonian crisis. Vital signs such as blood pressure, heart rate, and respiratory rate provide valuable information about the client's condition and response to therapy. Weighing the client (choice A) and testing urine for ketones (choice C) may be important but not as immediately critical as monitoring vital signs. Administering oral hydrocortisone (choice B) is essential for treatment but does not require frequent administration within the first 24 hours.

Question 7 of 9

What should be included in the teaching plan to young adults about the spread of AIDS?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because educating young adults about the rise in heterosexual transmission of HIV is crucial to prevent the spread of AIDS. This information helps them understand the importance of safe sex practices and awareness of risks. Choice B is incorrect as HIV transmission in children is not primarily due to sexual abuse. Choice C is also incorrect as herpes zoster is not a form of the HIV virus. Choice D is incorrect as transmission by IV drug users is not prominent with sterile equipment use. Focusing on the rise in heterosexual transmission is key in teaching young adults about AIDS prevention.

Question 8 of 9

Which of the ff is the best dietary advice to maximize the immune function in healthy people?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. A balanced and varied diet provides essential nutrients for immune function. 2. Including a wide range of foods ensures intake of vitamins, minerals, and antioxidants crucial for immune health. 3. Avoiding extremes like excessive immune-enhancing formulas or eliminating polyunsaturated fatty acids maintains balance. 4. Essential fatty acids and omega-3 fatty acids are beneficial but should be part of a well-rounded diet. 5. For clients with immune-mediated disorders, individualized dietary advice may be necessary. Summary: - A: Immune-enhancing formulas may not be necessary and could disrupt balance. - B: Avoiding all polyunsaturated fatty acids is not advisable as some are essential for health. - C: Increasing essential fatty acids is beneficial but should be part of a balanced diet.

Question 9 of 9

Why should clients who take warfarin (Coumadin) refrain from food items such as green leafy vegetables and soybeans?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because green leafy vegetables and soybeans are high in Vitamin K, which counteracts the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. Warfarin works by inhibiting Vitamin K-dependent clotting factors in the liver. By consuming Vitamin K-rich foods, the medication's effectiveness is reduced, leading to an increased risk of blood clot formation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the specific interaction between Vitamin K and warfarin in affecting coagulation. Choice B suggests the opposite effect of what actually occurs. Choices C and D are irrelevant to the pharmacological mechanism of warfarin.

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