Blood and fluid loss from frequent diarrhea may cause hypovolemia and you can quickly assess volume depletion in Miss CC by:

Questions 75

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Fundamentals Nursing Process Questions Questions

Question 1 of 9

Blood and fluid loss from frequent diarrhea may cause hypovolemia and you can quickly assess volume depletion in Miss CC by:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Comparing the patient’s present weight with her last weight. This is the most direct and reliable method to assess volume depletion due to fluid loss. By comparing the patient's current weight with her last weight, you can easily determine if there has been a significant decrease in weight indicating fluid loss and potential hypovolemia. Explanation of why other choices are incorrect: A: Measuring the quantity and specific gravity of her urine output - This method may provide some information about hydration status, but it is not as direct or reliable as comparing weight changes. B: Taking her blood pressure - While blood pressure can indicate hypovolemia, it may not provide immediate insight into volume depletion caused by diarrhea. D: Administering the oral water test - This test is not commonly used to assess volume depletion and may not be as effective or quick as comparing weight changes.

Question 2 of 9

The nurse encourages a client with an immunologic disorder to eat a nutritionally balanced diet to promote optimal immunologic function. Autoimmunity has been linked to excessive ingestion of:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fat. Excessive ingestion of fat has been linked to autoimmunity due to its potential to trigger inflammation in the body, which can disrupt the immune system's balance and lead to autoimmune responses. High-fat diets have been associated with increased production of pro-inflammatory molecules, impacting immune function negatively. Protein (choice A) is essential for immune function, vitamin A (choice B) supports immune responses, and zinc (choice D) is crucial for immune system regulation. However, excessive intake of these nutrients typically does not directly lead to autoimmunity like excessive fat consumption does.

Question 3 of 9

You would not find which of the following assessments in a patient with severe anemia?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cold sensitivity. Severe anemia leads to decreased oxygen delivery to tissues, causing symptoms like pallor, fatigue, and dyspnea on exertion due to the body compensating for low oxygen levels. Cold sensitivity is not a common symptom associated with anemia. The other choices are directly related to severe anemia due to the lack of oxygen delivery to tissues.

Question 4 of 9

A client with a cerebellar brain tumor is admitted to an acute care facility. The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Risk for injury. Which “related-to” phrase should the nurse add to complete the nursing diagnosis statement?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Related to impaired balance. The rationale for this is that a cerebellar brain tumor can affect the client's coordination and balance due to its location in the brain responsible for fine motor movements. Impaired balance increases the risk for falls and injuries. Visual field deficits (choice A) may contribute to the risk of injury but not as directly as impaired balance. Difficulty swallowing (choice C) and psychomotor seizures (choice D) are not directly related to the client's risk for injury due to a cerebellar brain tumor.

Question 5 of 9

After cancer chemotherapy, a client experiences nausea and vomiting. The nurse should highest priority to which intervention?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because administering antiemetic medications like metoclopramide and dexamethasone helps control nausea and vomiting post-chemotherapy. Metoclopramide acts on the gut to reduce nausea, while dexamethasone decreases inflammation and suppresses the vomiting reflex. Choice A focuses on dietary interventions but does not address the physiological cause of nausea. Choice B with breathing exercises may help some clients but does not directly address the nausea and vomiting. Choice D is incorrect as withholding fluids can lead to dehydration, which is not recommended after chemotherapy.

Question 6 of 9

Arthur, a 66-year old client for pneumonia has a temperature ranging from 39° to 40° C with periods of diaphoresis. Which of the following interventions by Nurse Carlos would be a priority?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer oxygen therapy. This is the priority intervention because a high temperature and diaphoresis indicate potential respiratory distress. Oxygen therapy can help improve oxygenation and support respiratory function. Providing frequent linen changes (B) is important for hygiene but not the priority. Fluid intake (C) is essential but not as urgent as addressing respiratory distress. Maintaining complete bed rest (D) may be necessary but addressing oxygenation takes precedence in this case.

Question 7 of 9

The nurse would monitor the client for which of the following?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trousseau's sign. This involves carpal spasm induced by inflating a blood pressure cuff above systolic pressure, indicating hypocalcemia. The nurse should monitor for this sign in clients at risk for low calcium levels. Hypoglycemia and hypokalemia have specific signs and symptoms not related to Trousseau's sign. Respiratory changes are nonspecific and may not be directly related to monitoring for low calcium levels.

Question 8 of 9

A client requires minor surgery for removal of a basal cell tumor. The anesthesiologist administers the anesthetic ketamine hydrochloride (Ketalar), 60g IV. After Ketamine administration, the nurse should monitor the client for:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Muscle rigidity and spasms. Ketamine can cause muscle rigidity and spasms as a side effect. The anesthesiologist should monitor the client for this adverse reaction. Muscle rigidity and spasms are common with ketamine administration and can affect the client's comfort and safety during the procedure. It is important for the nurse to promptly address any signs of muscle rigidity or spasms to prevent complications. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B: Hiccups - Ketamine can cause hiccups, but it is not the primary side effect to monitor for in this scenario. C: Extrapyramidal reactions - Ketamine does not typically cause extrapyramidal reactions. D: Respiratory depression - Ketamine is known for its minimal effect on respiratory depression compared to other anesthetics. Monitoring respiratory depression is still important, but not the primary concern with ketamine administration in this case.

Question 9 of 9

What is the focus of a diagnostic statement for a collaborative problem?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: The potential complication. In a collaborative problem, the focus of a diagnostic statement should be on identifying potential complications that may arise due to the client's health issue. This is important for developing effective interventions to prevent or manage these complications. Choice A focuses on the client's problem itself, not on potential complications. Choice C is related to nursing diagnosis, not collaborative problems. Choice D refers to medical diagnosis, which is different from collaborative problems involving nursing and other healthcare disciplines. Therefore, B is the correct focus for a diagnostic statement in a collaborative problem scenario.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days